Wednesday, August 12, 2009

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Free 000-046 Sample Questions:

1. Which type of DOORS user can create projects?
A. Edit DXL
B. Standard
C. Project Manager
D. Database Manager
Answer: D

2. Which statement is true about Private, Public, and Custom views?
A. All users have modify access to a Public view.
B. The Standard view can have custom access rights.
C. A view can only be made Private if the For Module check box is selected.
D. Access rights for a Custom view are inherited from the currently displayed view.
Answer: D

3. Which two module attributes can be used to generate a report about changes to the module? (Choose two.)
A. Created By
B. Created On
C. Last Modified By
D. Last Modified On
Answer: CD

4. According to the Standish Group, what percent of IT project failures result from poor requirements gathering, analysis, and management?
A. 30 to 40 percent
B. 40 to 50 percent
C. 50 to 60 percent
D. 60 to 70 percent
Answer: D

5. Which challenge faced by IT projects is most directly addressed with Requirements Management tools?
A. cost
B. time
C. scope
D. compliance
Answer: C

6. What is Requirements Management used for at the board level?
A. to develop tools
B. for project management
C. to develop a corporate vision
D. for portfolio and program management
Answer: C

7. Which type of requirement on the V-model focuses on design and implementation?
A. system
B. operational
C. component
D. stakeholder
Answer: C

8. When tracking development traceability along the V-model, what satisfies stakeholder requirements?
A. vision
B. system tests
C. acceptance tests
D. system requirements
Answer: D

9. What is NOT a characteristic of good requirements?
A. clear
B. correct
C. complete
D. ambiguous
Answer: D

10. What are three characteristics of a good requirements set? (Choose three.)
A. modular
B. sufficient
C. consistent
D. exhaustive
Answer: ABC

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000-377 Test 000-377, IBM WebSphere Application Server Net

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IBM 000-377 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 000-377 Sample Questions:

1. Which of the following is an option given in the First Steps application that runs automatically after installation?
A. Start the server.
B. Execute wsadmin.
C. Configure resources.
D. Run the Snoop servlet.
Answer: A

2. Which one of the following can be used to instantiate resource adapter classes for establishing and maintaining resource connections?
A. a data source
B. connection factories
C. connection pool settings
D. a JMS activation specification
Answer: B

3. global security is turned on for a federated cell using a file-based federated repository. The administrator created a new security domain called App1Domain using local operating system registry and mapping it to the application server. The administrator also created a new local operating system user ID App1Admin?
Which one of the following is true when the new security domain is enabled to secure Application1?
A. The administrator can access Application1.
B. The administrator can disable Application1 security.
C. App1Admin can disable Application1 security.
D. App1Admin can access the administrative console.
Answer: B

4. Aside from the administrative console and the addNode command, what other facilities does WebSphere Application Server provide for federating nodes into cells?
A. wsadmin
B. The administrative agent
C. The Profile Management Tool (PMT)
D. Rational Application Developer Assembly and Deploy Module
Answer: C

5. When backing up WebSphere Application Server configuration and runtime settings, which of the following commands would be relevant?
A. backupConfig -location location
B. restoreConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
C. manageprofiles -backupProfile -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
D. wsadmin -backupConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
Answer: C

6. What can the system administrator do to distribute incoming HTTP traffic across a farm of Web servers?
A. Enable server affinity for each HTTP server in the cluster
B. Implement the Tivoli Access Manager as a load balancer
C. Implement the caching proxy server component of the Edge Components
D. Use the Load Balancer component of the Edge Components
Answer: D

7. What is the sequence of components which would typically be involved in the flow of a request from a Web browser to a servlet?
A. External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and EJB Container
B. Load Balancer, Embedded HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and Web Container
C. Edge Component, HTTP Server Plug-in, external HTTP Server, and Web Container
D. External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in, embedded HTTP Server and Web Container
Answer: D

8. How could an administrator manage multiple stand-alone application servers on different hosts in a network?
By using:
A. a job manager which administers multiple application server nodes through administrative agents.
B. a deployment manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their node agents.
C. a high availability manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their administrative agents.
D. an administrative agent which administers multiple application server nodes through their administrative service.
Answer: A

9. Which type of server is recommended to be placed in the demilitarized zone (DMZ)?
A. Generic servers
B. Application servers
C. Managed HTTP servers
D. Unmanaged HTTP servers
Answer: D

10. What is the advantage of deploying more than one messaging engine and linking them together in a topology that has multiple interconnected service integration buses (SIBus)?
A. Enable protocol transformation between buses.
B. Improve the availability of the persistent storage.
C. Spread messaging workload across multiple servers.
D. Preserve message ordering through the messaging engines.
Answer: C

11. Why does IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment utilize node groups to implement a distributed environment? To:
A. segment multiple security domains within a WebSphere cell.
B. define the logical grouping of application servers to scale horizontally or vertically.
C. enable mixed nodes with different capabilities within the same cell for administration purposes.
D. allow application servers having the same applications installed to be grouped logically for workload management.
Answer: C

12. A system administrator wants to improve response time and system load of a Web application running in a clustered environment.
What might the system administrator attempt to decrease the response time of the Web application?
A. Configure dynamic caching
B. Enable memory-to-memory replication
C. Configure session replication to use a database.
D. Ensure that all cluster members are in the same node group.
Answer: A

13. A system administrator needs to modify the configuration of an enterprise application within a flexible management environment. The system administrator can make the modification using wsadmin scripts by connecting to which of the following components?
A. Node agent
B. Job manager
C. Work manager
D. Administrative agent
E. Deployment manager
Answer: BE

14. What would have to be configured in order to implement memory-to-memory HTTP Session persistence?
A. Dynamic cache service and HTTP plug-in
B. Synchronization service and embedded Web server
C. Distributed environment settings in the web containers
D. Fast Response Cache Accelerator (FRCA) and external Web server
Answer: C

15. When configuring automated transaction peer recovery for recovering in-flight transactions from the transaction log, what is required from the file system?
A. RAID disks must be used to host the transaction log
B. Exclusive read only file locks and the ability to invalidate them
C. File locking must be disabled for Network File System Version 4 (NFSv4)
D. Lease-based exclusive locks on files
Answer: D

16. What are the three possible replication types for the dynamic caching service?
A. Client mode
B. Server mode
C. Not shared
D. Push only
E. Both push and pull
F. Broadcast mode
Answer: CDE

17. What is the Data Replication Service (DRS) used for? Please choose three from the following.
A. Node agents
B. Web servers
C. Caching Proxy
D. Dynamic cache replication
E. HTTP session persistence and failover
F. Stateful session EJB persistence and failover
Answer: DEF

18. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between a flexible management topology and the network deployment cell?
A. Flexible management can be an alternative to the network deployment cell model.
B. Flexible management eliminates the need for node agents in a network deployment cell.
C. The flexible management topology is a replacement for the network deployment cell.
D. The flexible management job manager can perform all the tasks of the deployment manager.
Answer: A

19. In order for a deployment manager to participate in a flexible management environment, which one of the following steps must be completed?
A. Register directly with the job manager.
B. Register with the node agent on the job managers host.
C. Register with an administrative agent on the job managers host
D. First register with a local administrative agent, and then register with the job manager.
Answer: A

20. Which of the following items best gives a reason to perform an unattended installation of WebSphere Application Server?
A. The installation for the particular target platform is being done for the first time.
B. The installation for the particular target platform has been done before and will be repeated in the future.
C. The installation for WebSphere Application Server would initially not be able to include administrative security.
D. The installation for the particular target platform is expected to require a lot of adjustments to be done over several installation attempts.
Answer: B


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Free 000-370 Sample Questions:

1. The following type of testing requires the test environment most closely resembling the environment at the customer site:
A. Functional test.
B. Unit test.
C. System verification testing.
D. Static testing.
Answer: B

2. The inspection effort indicator is a proxy measure of how well the inspection process was:
A. Prepared.
B. Implemented.
C. Tracked.
D. Timed.
Answer: A

3. Which of the following enables developers to achieve modular designs?
A. Use case diagrams.
B. Analysis and modeling.
C. Componetization.
D. Sequence diagrams.
Answer: B

4. Test reuse delivers most of its return on investment during which phase?
A. Design
B. Implementation.
C. Execution.
D. Maintenance.
Answer: C

5. Early defect removal practices such as inspections:
A. Eliminate the need to apply Quality Predictive Indicators.
B. Reduce overall time to market.
C. Reduce the need for static analysis.
D. Can only be used with the waterfall model.
Answer: A

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000-370 Downloadable, Printable Exams (in PDF format):
We are all well aware that a major problem in the IT industry is that there is a lack of quality study materials. Our 000-370 Preparation Exam Material provides you everything you will need to take a certification examination. Details are researched and produced by Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, logical and verified explanations for the answers. You may get questions from different web sites or books, but logic is the key.