Sunday, July 19, 2009

000-330 Power Systems Technical Support for AIX and Linux

1.The customer has a 7014­B42, a 7014­T00, and a 7014­T42, each with available space. Which rack/racks support(s) the installation of the BladeCenter H?
A.7014­B42
B.7014­T00
C.7014­T42
D.7014­B42, and 7014­T42
Answer: A

2.Which of the following supports a Linux­based HA solution?
A.SE Linux
B.GPFS for Linux
C.Cluster Systems Manager (CSM)
D.PowerHA Cluster Manager for AIX and Linux
Answer: D

3.How can a company that is concerned about energy costs in the datacenter use Power servers to better manage energy usage?
A.Set energy management parameters with AEM
B.Set energy management parameters with IVM
C.Set energy management parameters within AIX
D.Set energy management parameters with the HMC
Answer: A

4.A customer is consolidating LAMP on Power. They would like to also consolidate Linux x86 OLTP applications. Which of the following should be discussed?
A.Requires PowerVM Lx86
B.Requires AIX 5.3 or later.
C.Native port is recommended
D.Enabled with the AIX Linux Toolkit
Answer: C

5.A large customer has many POWER4 servers that have been sized for their peak workload but are under utilized most of the time. They are at the end of their lease and want to purchase POWER6 servers. Which PowerVM technology will maximize their server utilization?
A.Workload Partitions
B.Partition Load Manager
C.Shared Processor Pools
D.Live Partition Mobility
Answer: C

6.Which of the following is a competitive advantage of IBM PowerVM compared to HP Integrity Virtual Machines (IVM)?
A.PowerVM provides the capability to support shared CPU, memory and I/O resources.
B.PowerVM Editions are supported on Power systems from low to high­end servers and blade servers.
C.AIX and Linux interface directly with the hardware and the hardware ensures isolation is maintained.
D.Processing resources can be dynamically allocated and shared between logical partitions with PowerVM.
Answer: C

7.Which of the following does IBM Fix Central provide to customers?
A.Customer hotline for immediate dispatch of service personnel for critical issues.
B.Designated local service center for each customer location with a maintenance contract.
C.Subscription based on­site service agreement for regularly scheduled system maintenance.
D.Web site access to PTFs and updates for system software, hardware, and operating systems.
Answer: D

8.A mid market customer wants to compare Power Systems performance to HP PA­RISC performance from a complete systems perspective. Which performance metric should be used?
A.RPE2
B.SWAP
C.rPerf
D.SPECint 2006
Answer: A

9.How many network cards can be added to the JS12 and JS22 Blades?
A.JS12 = 1, JS22 = 1
B.JS12 = 2, JS22 = 2
C.JS12 = 1, JS22 = 2
D.JS12 = 2, JS22 = 1
Answer: B

10.Which of the following options for PowerHA Cluster Manager can help simplify implementation and configuration in a DB2 and WebSphere environment?
A.Smart Assist
B.Insight Utility
C.Virtual Image Manager
D.Cluster Systems Management
Answer: A

11.A customer has an 8­core POWER6 570 with 4 active processors. They have dedicated partitions. They have occasional need for additional CPU capacity. They do not want permanent activations and want to have monthly post billing for usage. What type of CoD best meets their requirements?
A.Trial CoD allows short term processor and memory activations.
B.Utility CoD autonomically provides additional processor performance on a temporary basis.
C.On/Off CoD enables processors to be temporarily activated in full­day increments as needed.
D.Capacity Upgrade on Demand (CUoD) allows you to purchase additional processor capacity and dynamically activate it when needed.
Answer: C

12.Which of the following is the appropriate disk configuration for an application that requires faster writes over availability?
A.RAID 0
B.RAID 1
C.RAID 5
D.RAID 6
Answer: A

13.Which IBM technical resource provides guideance, installation and tmplementation examples?
A.IBM InfoCenter
B.IBM Sales Manual
C.IBM Installation Guides
D.IBM Technical Sales Library
Answer: A

14.Which of the following features of Active Energy Manager help customers save energy costs?
A.Power capping
B.Fan speed management
C.Active power leveling
D.Power regulator management
Answer: A

15.Which of the following correctly describes Utility Capacity on Demand?
A.Additional processors can be assigned to any partition and are billed to the customer as units of 1 day.
B.Additional processors can be assigned to any partition and are billed to the customer as units of 1 minute.
C.Additional processors are assigned to the shared processor pool and are billed to the customer as units of 1 day.
D.Additional processors are assigned to the shared processor pool and are billed to the customer as units of 1 minute.
Answer: D

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IBM 000-180 Practice Test, 000-180 Best Exam Questions, 000-180 Certification

000-180 p5 and pSeries Enterprise Technical Support AIX 5L V5.3

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1. A customer has several AS/400 servers in their IT infrastructure running V5R2 that they wish to consolidate. The customer wants to simplify their environment and install i5/OS on a p5 590 with 16 1.65GHz processors and 20 i5/OS partitions. The customer plans to use the Advanced Power Virtualization to share their storage, processors, and memory. What considerations and limitations should be reviewed with the customer before the purchase?
A. Resources cannot be shared with an i5 partition when it is put on a pSeries. The i5 partition needs its own 9411-100 tower because of IOP. V5R3 OS or later is required. There is a maximum of two partitions in a 590.
B. Resources cannot be shared between partitions when i5/OS is put on a pSeries. The i5 partition needs its own 9411-100 tower because of IOP. i5/OS can be at V5R2 or a V5R3. Currently only one i5 partition is allowed.
C. V5R3 is required for the i5 partitions. Virtual IO Server is not supported for the i5/OS partitions to share storage. Up to 10 i5 partitions per processor are allowed (a maximum of two processors for up to 20 partitions).
D. Processor and memory resources can be shared between AIX 5L, Linux and i5/os partitions. i5/OS needs to be at V5R3, and Virtual IO Server is not supported for the i5/OS partition to share storage. On a 1.65 GHz POWER5 p5 590 there is a maximum of one partition.
Answer: C

2. A customer wants to use Virtual SCSI disks to boot multiple operating systems from the same disk. How will the volumes appear in the Virtual IO Server and how will the logical volumes appear in the partition?
A. The Virtual SCSI disks are defined as logical volumes in the Virtual IO Server. The logical volumes appear as real devices (hdisks) in the client partitions.
B. The Virtual IO adapters are connected to a virtual host bridge. On the Virtual IO Server they are vdisks, on the client partition, the exported disks are visible as virtual disks.
C. The Virtual SCSI disks are represented in the ODM as a bus device whose parent is sysplanar0. Logical volumes will be assigned to the Virtual IO Server and virtual disks, vdisks, in the client partition.
D. The Virtual IO adapters are represented as adapter devices with the virtual host bridge as their parent. On the Virtual IO Server they are vdisks attached to vscsi, on the client partition the exported disks are visible as virtual disks.
Answer: A

3. A customer has purchased a p5 590 with 16 CPUs. To run Simultaneous Multi-Threading (SMT) with a 4-way virtual processor partition with 2.0 processing units of entitlement, how many logical CPUs will be allocated?
A. 8-way logical CPU partition, where each logical CPU has the power of 25% of a logical processor
B. 4-way logical CPU partition, where each logical CPU has the power of 50% of a physical processor
C. 8-way logical CPU partition, where each logical CPU has the power of 25% of a physical processor
D. 16-way logical CPU partition, where each logical CPU has the power of 25% of a physical processor
Answer: C

4. A customer wants to buy a new p5 570 running AIX 5.3. The applications require 4 processors and 8GB of memory. There is a requirement to have a Virtual IO Server. What is the smallest p5 570 that should be sold to this customer?
A. 4 processors 8GB of memory
B. 5 processors 8GB of memory
C. 4 processors 10GB of memory
D. 5 processors 10GB of memory
Answer: D

5. A customer has just installed a p5 595 with four uncapped LPARs in a shared processor pool. The system and profile settings are still in their default states. One of the LPARs has an application that is consuming all of the available shared processor resources. Users of this application are complaining about response time. Which of the following changes to the slow LPAR would improve response time?
A. Enable SMT
B. Reduce the weight
C. Renice the process
D. Increase the weight
Answer: D

6. A customer has restored their mksysb. They notice that the external volume groups cannot be seen. What should be done to access the volume groups? A. Run importvg command
B. Run synclvodm command
C. Recreate volume groups
D. Update /etc/filesystems
Answer: A

7. A customer is purchasing a p5 595 as part of a large server consolidation. They are planning on using micropartitioning and Virtual IO to consolidate small machines. They used the rPerf numbers for AIX 5.3 to size their solutions. They discovered that their application is not yet certified on AIX 5.3, so they will have to use AIX 5.2. What changes should be made to their configuration?
A. Increase memory
B. Add more adapters
C. Increase both processors and adapters
D. Increase the number of processors by 20 - 30%
Answer: C

8. A customer is moving their application to a p5 590 and at the same time moving to a new version of the application. The customer knows only about the resource requirements of the old version. Which of the following is the best method to migrate their application to POWER5?
A. Add CPU and memory COD so they have room to grow if required
B. Make the server configuration twice as large as the current requirement
C. Configure the server for the current capacity requirements
D. Make the server configuration a little larger than the current capacity requirements
Answer: A

9. A large customer is consolidating their pSeries systems onto a p5 590. They will have a requirement for a single device (disk, lun) to have multiple paths through different adapters in a single LPAR. The primary applications were written for AIX 5.2. Which of the following would be the recommended solution to satisfy this requirement?
A. Assign the adapters to a Virtual IO partition
B. Use the MPIO function included in AIX 5.2
C. Migrate the application to AIX 5.3 and use the MPIO function
D. Set up two Virtual IO partitions and attach both partitions to the device
Answer: B

10. A customer has a requirement for an LPAR in their p5 595 to run SUSE Linux. They also require an adapter that is not currently supported in Linux. Which of the following would be the best solution to recommend?
A. Assign the adapter to an IO Hosting partition
B. Use AIX 5L affinity to move the application from SUSE to AIX
C. Use AIX 5.3 drivers to install the adapter in the Linux LPAR
D. Assign the adapter to an AIX 5.3 partition running Linux Affinity
Answer: A

11. A customer has seven days of vmstat data on four p5 590 production LPARs of four processors each. The data shows that all four LPARs have periodic utilizations of 90-95% lasting several minutes in duration. However, the average utilizations of the four LPARs were between 15-30%. The vmstat data shows that the peak utilizations of each LPAR do not occur at the same time. Which of the following should be set up?
A. A shared pool with four capped LPARs
B. A shared pool with four uncapped LPARs
C. Four dedicated LPARs and use DLPAR to manage resources effectively
D. The server in SMP mode and use WLM to manage resources effectively
Answer: B

12. A customer has seven days of vmstat data on a p5 590. The server has a total of four test/dev LPARs and 4 production LPARs of one processor each. On the four test/dev LPARs, the data shows 90-95% peak utilizations with a duration of from 5 to 10 minutes. The average utilizations of all LPARs were between 15-30%. All of the applications have different times when they peak. What is the best configuration to fully utilize the processor resource?
A. Set up the server in SMP mode and use WLM to manage resources effectively
B. Set up eight dedicated LPARs and use DLPAR to manage resources effectively
C. Set up a shared pool with eight capped LPARs including production and test/dev
D. Set up a shared pool with eight uncapped LPARs with priority weight to Production
Answer: D

13. A customer is purchasing a p5 590 which was configured with 60 Amp line cords. They have just indicated that their large datacenter is already wired for 100 Amp power circuits in the location where the server will be installed. What would be the recommended action?
A. Use the 60 Amp line cords
B. Change the 100 Amp connector to a 60 Amp circuit
C. Submit an RPQ to order the p5 590 with 100 Amp power cords
D. Change the configuration and order the p5 590 with the 100 Amp power cords
Answer: D

14. A customer is purchasing a 64-way p5 595. They have determined the location for the server is in a datacenter which does not have a raised floor. Which of the following would best meet the server requirements?
A. The server must be installed into a location with a raised floor for optimum system cooling and cable management.
B. The server should be purchased as a p5 590 and then upgraded to a p5 595. This will eliminate the need for a raised floor environment.
C. The server should be purchased as 32-way p5 595 and then upgraded to a 64-way. This will eliminate the need for a raised floor environment.
D. The server can be installed into a location without a raised floor if an RPQ is obtained. It is a strong IBM recommendation for a raised floor, not a requirement.
Answer: A

15. A customer has plans to deploy a large database solution. Their primary requirement is minimal user access downtime. They are comparing a single server implementation with a two server deployment. What solution would they use to avoid downtime for OS software maintenance?
A. Apply OS updates once a year
B. Utilize a GPFS cluster solution
C. Implement a two server deployment with HACMP
D. Install a single server implementation with HACMP failover to a second LPAR
Answer: C

Tuesday, July 14, 2009

IBM 000-093 study guide, 000-093 free practice test

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Free 000-093 Sample Questions:


1.A manager interacts with an expense application via a human task. What action is appropriate to take if an obscure exception occurs when the manager enters a response and completes the task?
A.Edit the business data from Failed Event Manager and re­submit the failed event.
B.Resubmit the failed event with trace using Failed Event Manager for further troubleshooting.
C.Delete the failed event from Failed Event Manager, then stop and re­start the TaskContainer.
D.Query the failed event using Failed Event Manager, then send the information to the developer.
Answer: B

2.The SystemOut.log indicates that the installation of an enterprise application failed. If the application contains WebSphere Adapter artifacts, what must be done before attempting to reinstall?
A.Remove any SIBus destinations or JCA activation specifications created prior to the failure.
B.Remove the Event Archive table created prior to the failure.
C.Create new Endpoint Listener to replace the one existed prior to the failure.
D.Create necessary SIBus destinations and JCA activation specifications manually.
Answer: A

3.Creation of a new profile failed with following error: Wait until the current creation or deletion operation is complete before continuing. In order to proceed with new profile creation, what must the administrator do next?
A.Stop the server, then restart the Profile Wizard.
B.Terminate any running javaw.exe process.
C.Make sure to enter a unique profile name from the wizard.
D.Delete profileRegistry.xml_LOCK file to release the lock.
Answer: D

4.An event failure occurred due to wrong date format which was sent from component A to component B. What will the Failed Event Manager allow an administrator to do?
A.Edit the date value and resubmit
B.Create a human task to notify the event originator
C.Bypass component B
D.Re­route the message
Answer: A

5.When using WebSphere Process Server V6.0.1, the installation of a business process that was generated for WebSphere Process Server V6.0.0 throws UnexpectedFailureException exception. Which of the following must the administrator do next?
A.Regenerate business process code in V6.0.1 and reinstall.
B.Run serviceDeploy tool to resolve this problem.
C.Make sure that Business Process Container has been installed.
D.Rename the module containing the business process different from the previous version.
Answer: A

6.The TaskContainer application failed to start due to missing SchedulerCalendars application. Which of the following tasks must the administrator complete to correct the situation?
A.Reinstall Human Task Container which will reinstall the SchedulerCalendars application.
B.Manually install the SchedulerCalendars application, which is available in \installableApps directory.
C.Reconfigure the human task container to use Application Scheduler instead.
D.Running bpeconfig.jacl will make SchedulerCalendars application accessible from TaskContainer application.
Answer: B

7.The installation of a business integration application fails. The server log displays a message of the form: ... BPED0202I: Validated process model 'OrderProcess' unsuccessfully: 0 information, 2 warnings, 1 error. What should the administrator do to complete the application installation?
A.Turn detailed tracing on and install again to capture details on the installation failure.
B.Update the validFrom value for the OrderProcess component and reinstall.
C.Return the application to developer to fix errors in OrderProcess.
D.Return the application to developer to rebuild staging projects.
Answer: C

8.During the execution of a business process instance, which of the following events CANNOT be seen in the trace log if the business process container trace level is set to all=enabled?
A.A new process instance getting created
B.An activity instance getting created
C.An event message delivery
D.A staff query result
Answer: D

9.The log.txt contains INSTCONFPARTIALSUCCESS. In order to resolve the incomplete product installation, an administrator must do which two of the following?
A.Run installver_wbi command to install missing files through the tool.
B.Run the Installation Verification Test to detect if the error can be ignored.
C.Verify the installed files against the bill of materials using installver_wbi command.
D.Rename vpd.properties file, then re­run the installer.
E.Check to see if other log files identify the errors.
Answer: C, E

10.A long­running business process appears to have stopped due to repeated reply message delivery failures. Which of the following is the appropriate action for an administrator to take?
A.Re­send the response message through SIBus mediation layer.
B.Re­submit the message using the Failed Event Manager with trace on.
C.Restart the process instance through BPC Explorer.
D.Set the continueOnError attribute to true from Administrative Console.
Answer: B

11.With tracing enabled for the staff support service, the following message indicates a problem exists reading which file? javax.xml.transform.TransformerException: org.xml.sax.SAXParseException: Element type "xsl:template" must be followed by either attribute specifications, ">" or "/>"
A.actionSet.xsl
B.collectionTab.xsl
C.EverybodyTransformation.xsl
D.LDAPTransformation.xsl
Answer: D

12.In which of the following topologies can the JDBC WebSphere Adapter be deployed to WebSphere Process Server?
A.As a standalone RAR
B.As part of an integration application
C.As part of an adapter application
D.As either a standalone RAR or part of an integration application
Answer: B

13.An administrator plans to distribute an Service Component Architecture (SCA) module that contains a business process. Which of the following conditions must be met for successful distribution into a clustered environment?
A.In the cluster, one server must be running and the business process container must be configured on each server.
B.In the cluster, each server must be running and the business process container must be configured on one server.
C.In the cluster, each server must be running.
D.In the cluster, the business process container must be installed and configured on one server.
Answer: A

14.An application has been installed with the following JMS binding: Connection JNDI Lookup Name is "jms/myLookupName". Which of the following resources needs to be established to support this binding?
A.JMS activation specification
B.JMS topic
C.JMS topic connection factory
D.JMS queue connection factory
Answer: A

15.It has been determined that business process instance data must be deleted via Business Process Container Explorer. What level of authorization will allow the deletion of process instances that are either finished or terminated?
A.Originator
B.Administrator
C.Owner
D.Editor
Answer: B

16.It has been determined that a process instance must be terminated. Compensation has been defined for the process model. What will be the effect if the administrator selects Terminate from the Business Process Choreographer Explorer?
A.The process instance is stopped and compensation processing is started.
B.The process instance is stopped and compensation processing is not started.
C.The process instance is stopped immediately while waiting for any outstanding activities or tasks to complete.
D.Nothing. Process instances with compensation cannot be terminated.
Answer: A

17.Which option should be specified when installing an application containing Web services using the wsadmin command?
A.­deployws
B.­wsdeploy
C.­configws
D.­usedefaultbindings
Answer: A

18.An application has been configured and installed with two JNDI lookup names, one for replies and the other for lookups. What resources must be configured by the administrator to support this configuration?
A.Two JMS activation specifications
B.Two JMS queues
C.Two JMS queue connection factories
D.Two JMS connection factories
Answer: B

19.An administrator unsuccessfully attempted to deploy an enterprise application that contained a business process model. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the failed deployment?
A.The process template is in a stopped status.
B.The Business Process Choreographer database is not accessible.
C.A version of process template already exists.
D.An enterprise application already has a valid process template.
Answer: B

20.In which case is the Human Task Container installed but not yet configured?
A.When the bpeconfig.jacl script has just been run
B.When the sibwsInstall.jacl script has just been run
C.When the Human Task Container has just been installed via the Administrative console "Human Task Container Installation wizard"
D.When the base installation of WebSphere Process Server has just been completed
Answer: C

21.In order to support the business rules manager in a clustered WebSphere Process Server configuration, which of the following configuration changes must the administrator make?
A.Install and configure the business rules manager on each server in the cluster.
B.Install and configure the business rules manager on a single server in the cluster.
C.Configure a profile for the business rules manager.
D.Augment the Deployment Manager profile with the business rules manager configuration.
Answer: B

22.An administrator wants two installations, a WebSphere Application Server V5.1 and a WebSphere Process Server V6.0, to coexist on the same server. What steps must the administrator take to allow the products to coexist?
A.Install WebSphere Process Server first and then make administrative changes to prevent port conflicts
so that both products can coexist.
B.Once the WebSphere Process Server installation detects the installation, select the coexistence option
to configure ports and resources to allow for coexistence.
C.Confirm that WebSphere Application Server has Fix Pack 2 installed to support compatible embedded messaging.
D.The two products cannot coexist on the same machine.
Answer: B

23.An enterprise has implemented an LDAP schema that uses different object classes and attributes than the WebSphere Process Server defaults. Which file would need modification to map staff verbs to LDAP queries?
A.Verb set file
B.LDAP transformation file
C.User registry transformation file
D.Web server plugin configuration file
Answer: B

24.For a clustered Business Process Choreographer setup, what needs to be considered when using Cloudscape for the business process container database?
A.Each business process container must connect to the database using the embedded version of Cloudscape.
B.Each business process container must connect to the database using the Cloudscape Network Server.
C.The deployment manager must connect to the database using the Cloudscape Network Server.
D.Cloudscape is not supported for a clustered Business Process Choreographer setup.
Answer: D

25.What must an administrator do to ensure that the Business Process Container is running?
A.Use the administrative console or run a JACL script to confirm the Business Process Container is pointing to the appropriate databases.
B.Select the enable option via the administrative console and ensure the console reports the Business Process Container is successfully enabled.
C.Install and configure the Business Process Container via JACL scripts or the administrative console as it is not installed by default.
D.No specific validation is necessary as it is installed by default with WebSphere Process Server but must be configured via a configuration JACL script.
Answer: C

26.An administrator has attempted to federate a WebSphere Process Server node to a deployment manager, but the federation of the node fails. Which two of the following would prevent successful federation of the node?
A.The deployment manager is configured to use SOAP as the JMX connector type.
B.Security has been disabled on the deployment manager node.
C.The deployment manager is not running.
D.The deployment manager is configured to use remote method invocation (RMI)as the JMX connector type.
E.The deployment manager is a WebSphere Process Server profile.
Answer: C, D

27.To prepare to use the Business Process Choreographer in a clustered environment, what database considerations must be made when planning the installation?
A.For a Cloudscape database, configuration must be done so that cluster members can access the data in a distributed environment.
B.A valid installation of DB2, Oracle, Informix or SQL Server must be made available so that the Business Process Choreographer can be configured to it during configuration.
C.The database that the Business Process Choreographer will use must be on the same machine as the Network Deployment installation due to current product restrictions.
D.The BPCDB.JACL script must be run to create the appropriate databases for the Business Process Choreographer prior to performing the installation so that the installation can successfully complete.
Answer: B

28.In order for the LDAP Plugin Staff Provider to anonymously log into the LDAP server, which of the following properties of the LDAP plugin need NOT be configured?
A.AuthenticationAlias
B.AuthenticationType
C.ContextFactory
D.ProviderURL
Answer: A

29.Monitoring of business process events can be enabled by performing which of the following actions?
A.Installing and configuring the CEI logging feature in WebSphere Process Server.
B.Installing and configuring the CEI logging feature in WebSphere Application Server.
C.Enabling CEI logging within the Business Process container.
D.Configuring logging parameters within the jlog.properties file for the WebSphere Process Server installation.
Answer: C

30.Which of the following is true about the Business Rules Manager installation and configuration?
A.It is installed with the default installation of WebSphere Process Server and must be configured after installation.
B.It is a separate component of WebSphere Process Server that must be installed and configured prior to being used.
C.It uses a database that can not be shared in nodes across a cluster without additional configuration.
D.It is a feature of WebSphere Application Server that can be enabled within WebSphere Process Server
Answer: B

000-076 IBM Exam Questions

IBM 000-076 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

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1. What IBM technology makes it easier for a customer to quickly locate and identify a failed server component?
A. Memory Mirroring
B. Predictive Failure Analysis
C. Processor Clockspeed
D. Light Path Diagnostics
Answer: D

2. Which of the following Cool Blue technologies will help energy consumption budgeting of System x servers based upon current actual consumption?
A. IBM Standalone Solutions Configuration Tool (SSCT)
B. IBM Active Energy Manager
C. Rear Door Heat eXchanger
D. IBM Power Configurator
Answer: B

3. What IBM pre-sales guidance resource would you use to make sure the Systems x hardware and application software are appropriately matched up?
A. xREF Sheets
B. Standalone Solutions Configuration Tool (SSCT)
C. IBM Sizing Guides
D. IBM ServerProven
Answer: C

4. Which IBM resource is a Web-based data repository for tested and supported hardware, applications, and middleware for System x and BladeCenter?
A. IBM Sizing Guides
B. Configuration & Options Guide COG
C. Standalone Solutions Configuration Tool (SSCT)
D. IBM ServerProven
Answer: D

5. A customer is concerned about the high energy cost associated with their data center. Specifically, their concern focuses on the cooling cost of many hundreds of servers. You have a meeting with the CIO and CFO to propose a solution. How would you prepare yourself for the meeting?
A. Since their capacities and usage models vary, ask the customer to turn off some of the servers during off-peak and low demand time.
B. Investigate their expansion plans and suggest to the customer the removal of some of their servers to another location and retirement of the older servers.
C. Contact the CFO to find out the targeted energy savings of the company and propose to the customer the purchase of a more efficient cooling system.
D. Contact the CIO for a list of servers and type/model numbers. Complete a proposal outlining the savings on energy cost by deploying an IBM BladeCenter solution and total cost of ownership and return on investment.
Answer: D

6. CIOs and their staff have very little experience architecting or designing solutions to support unknown workloads. As executives focus on compliance issues, more systems must be architected to align with emerging or poorly defined requirements. If the customer prefers an integrated solution physically consolidated in a scalable, single framework that can connect to an enterprise class storage area network, what solution would you recommend?
A. Multiple 1U and 2U servers equipped with FC HBAs to connect to the enterprise SAN
B. Single 3U/4U servers expandable to 32-way equipped with FC HBAs to connect to the enterprise SAN
C. BladeCenter, expandable to 14 blades equipped with FC HBAs, and redundant 20-port FC SAN Switch modules to connect to enterprise SAN
D. IBM 1350 Cluster equipped with FC HBAs to connect to enterprise SAN
Answer: C

7. The CIO of a research and technology company recently sent an email outlining his organization's Information Technology plans for the next 12 to 18 months. He asked for proposals that satisfied the following requirements:
--Recommend an Opteron AMD server capable of running as a 3-way but can be upgraded to a 4-way server.
--Recommend a four (4) way Intel Dual core 3.5GHz Sever capable of being upgraded to a 16 way server. What servers would you propose?
A. IBM x3755 and IBM x3850
B. IBM x3650 and IBM LS41 Blade
C. IBM x3655 and IBM x3650
D. IBM x3755 and IBM x3950
Answer: D

8. The IBM Systems & Technology value proposition is built on:
A. Realize Innovation, Manage Growth Complexity and Risk, Go Green and Save
B. Collaboration, Virtualization, and Ecosystem
C. Innovation, Collaboration, and On-Demand
D. Openness, On-Demand, and Green
Answer: A

9. The Virtualization Manager manages physical and virtual machines through a single console. Which vendor offers this product to its customer at no additional charge?
A. HP
B. Unisys
C. DELL
D. IBM
Answer: D

10. The customer asks for a scalable SQL server solution. What advantages supports the choice of the System x3950?
A. More processing 'head room' for a SQL infrastructure using eXpand on Demand
B. A more affordable platform choice than HP Itanium based server
C. IBM Services to install and support the solution
D. All of the above
Answer: D

11. What's the strongest differentiator between 2U servers offered by IBM, HP, and Dell?
A. DIMM slots
B. hot swappable fans
C. hot swappable hard drives
D. none of the above
Answer: A

12. Which of the following listed diagnostics products provides easy notification and identification of a failed component, even if the power is off?
A. Insight manager
B. PowerPath
C. LightPath Diagnostics
D. Sun Server Diagnostic
Answer: C
13. A sales specialist is presented with a very large, complex opportunity. The customer is in the process of identifying business requirements. Which of the following tasks is most important to position IBM as the leader to capture this opportunity?
A. Call the IBM Client Representative and ask the rep to influence the company's executives.
B. Develop a strategy to better understand and possibly influence the customer's success criteria.
C. Using IBM's opportunity management system, request a technical team be formed to design a solution.
D. Nominate the customer for a funded IBM Server Consolidation study.
Answer: B

14. A potential new customer needs servers and requests a response to their hardware specifications, which are all related to hardware speeds, disk, and memory configuration. The customer requests a quote within 48 hours. Which of the following should the System x Sales Specialist do to MAXIMIZE the odds of winning this business?
A. Request an extension because 48 hours will not be enough time to propose an appropriate solution.
B. Ask the customer for a call to learn more about their needs and respond to their request with a complete solution.
C. Use the configuration guide or spreadsheet configurator to assemble server configurations that meet the specification, and then look for the lowest price.
D. Contact the IBM Client Representative for this account and ask for assistance in setting up a meeting with the technical decision maker of the prospective customer.
Answer: B

15. A Sales Specialist receives an email from a customer, requesting information on IBM's best Server Consolidation solution. How should the Sales Specialist proceed?
A. Send the customer information on VMware
B. Send the customer information on IBM BladeCenter
C. Call the customer to ask why they are consolidating
D. Send the customer information on IBM System P
Answer: C

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000-019 IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.8 Implementation
000-021 IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler V8.5 Implementation
000-M35 IBM Info Management Informix Dynamic Server Technical Mastery

Saturday, July 11, 2009

IBM Certification 000-M04 complete practice questions

Cheat-test 000-M04 Certification Exam

1. Which of the following are valid editions within the WebSphere Application Server V6 offering?
A. WebSphere Application Server (base)
B. WebSphere Application Server Small Business
C. WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment
D. WebSphere Application Server Express
Answer: ACD
2. Which of the following components are included as part of WebSphere Application Server's basic architecture?
A. Messaging engine
B. Name server
C. HTTP server
D. JavaBeans container
Answer: ABC
3. Which of the following are supported cell configurations where co-existence of WebSphere Application Server
versions exists?
A. Version 5.x nodes can be included in a Version 6 cell
B. Version 6 servers can be added to mixed Version 5.x/Version 6 clusters
C. Version 6 servers can be added to a Version 5.x cluster
D. Co-existence of versions cannot occur
Answer: AB
4. Which version of the J2EE specification is WebSphere Application Server V6 based on?
A. J2EE 1.1
B. J2EE 1.2
C. J2EE 1.3
D. J2EE 1.4
Answer: D
5. What technology is intended to make it easier for application and tool developers to create, view, update, and
delete data that is stored in a variety of backend data stores?
A. WebSphere instances
B. Single signon
C. Service Data Object architecture
D. Enterprise Service Bus
Answer: C
6. Which of the following are true of WebSphere Platform Messaging and WebSphere Application Server V6?
A. The messaging server process is part of the application server.
B. There is no connectivity to external instances of WebSphere MQ.
C. Each server can have its own messaging engine.
D. The base installation provides a pure Java JMS 1.0 provider as part of the application server.
Answer: AC
7. When installing the application serving environment, what are the options for beginning the installation for
each component (i.e., the WebSphere Application Server, IBM HTTP Server, etc)
A. Install each component directly using the install command in the component directory
B. Extract the downloadable ZIP files to the appropriate installation directory
C. Use the launchpad to install any component on the product disc
D. Start the WebSphere Application Server installation and install each option from within this process
Answer: AC
8. What can a system administrator use to access and administer WebSphere Application Server?
A. Standalone administrative console
B. Web-based administrative console
C. wsadmin command-line client
D. JMX-based custom administrative client
Answer: BCD
9. Which of the following are true regarding the AdminApplication?
A. Accessed through http://localhost:9060/ibm/adminApp
B. Runs exclusively within the node agent on a node
C. Can be managed through the console's listing of installed applications
D. Protected by WebSphere security
Answer: D
10. Which of the following are options for starting a stand-alone application server?
A. Access the application server using the administrative console and click Start
B. Issue the startServer command at the command line
C. Issue the startNode command
D. Run a wsadmin script that contains the startServer command
Answer: B

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11. Which of the following are true of the various command line tools available with WebSphere Application
Server to start and stop the WebSphere managed processes?
A. Command line tools can be run for local servers, local nodes, remote servers, and remote nodes
B. The server must be running to access all the command line tools
C. Each command must be executed relative to a specified or default profile
D. Running a command from the application server's bin directory executes the command against the default
profile
Answer: CD
12. Using the Ant tool provided with WebSphere Application Server, what pre-defined tasks can you carry out
with Ant scripts?
A. Start and stop servers in a base configuration
B. Run the EJB deployment tool
C. Run the JSP file precompilation tool
D. Install and uninstall application servers
Answer: ABC
13. What are a set of WebSphere user-customizable data files, which run in combination with a set of shared
read-only product binary files, called?
A. Product files
B. Configuration files
C. Data files
D. Profiles
Answer: D
14. What tools are used to create profiles?
A. First steps console
B. Profile creation wizard
C. wsadmin
D. wasprofile
Answer: BD
15. Which features supported by WebSphere Application Server V6 facilitate simplified deployment and updating
of enterprise applications?
A. Security roles
B. Fine-grained updates
C. Enhanced EAR file support
D. Minimum file security
Answer: BC
16. Applications that will be deployed on WebSphere Application Server V6 may contain which of the following
files types?
A. J2EE-compliant deployment descriptors
B. IBM bindings
C. IBM extensions
D. HTML and GIF files
Answer: ABCD
17. Which one of the following is a quick method of accessing a set of applications that demonstrate common
enterprise application tasks?
A. The Samples Gallery
B. Creating and installing a simple Hello World application
C. WebSphere Tutorial Suite
D. Migrating applications from previously installed versions of WebSphere Application Server
Answer: A
18. What application assembly tools are included with WebSphere Application Server?
A. Application Assembly Tool
B. Rational Application Developer
C. Application Server Toolkit
D. wsadmin
Answer: C
19. What is the function of class loaders?
A. Ensure that deployed application modules can access the classes and resources they require to run
B. Preload classes required for installing WebSphere Application Server
C. Load classes at application installation time
D. Improve performance of the application server
Answer: A
20. Which of the following modules are installable on WebSphere Application Server?
A. EAR files
B. WAR files
C. RAR files
D. ZIP files
Answer: ABC
21. What tasks can be performed with wsadmin?
A. Scripting
B. Application configuration
C. Administration from the command line
D. Profile creation
Answer: ABC
22. What is the object-oriented scripting language that can be used with wsadmin?
A. Jython
B. Javascript
C. Java
D. C++
Answer: A
23. Which wsadmin object accesses the WebSphere Application Server static configuration information to
facilitate configuration changes?
A. AdminApp
B. AdminConfig
C. AdminTask
D. Help
Answer: B
24. Which authentication mechanisms are supported by WebSphere Application Server V6?
A. LDAP
B. LTPA
C. SWAM
D. JAAS
Answer: BC
25. What mechanism allows a user to authenticate only once in a DNS domain and be able to access resources in
other WebSphere Application Server cells without getting prompted again?
A. LTPA
B. Single signon
C. JAAS
D. Unified security
Answer: B
26. Which of the following are true regarding security in WebSphere Application Server?
A. Java2 security is enabled by default
B. Enabling administrative security activates security on all WebSphere Application Server components
C. Incorrectly configuring security can result in inadvertently locking users out of the administrative console
D. Java 2 security and administrative security can be configured independently of one another
Answer: BCD
27. What provides server-side data collection and a client-side API to retrieve performance data?
A. Performance viewer
B. Tivoli Performance Viewer
C. Performance Monitoring Infrastructure
D. Advisor architecture
Answer: C
28. Which performance advisors are provided by WebSphere Application Server?
A. Performance and Diagnostic Advisor
B. Tivoli Performance Viewer's performance advisor
C. Performance Monitoring Infrastructure advisors
D. JVM Performance Advisor
Answer: AB
29. Which of the following are useful resources for identifying problems in WebSphere Application Server?
A. JNDI dump name space
B. Log Analyzer
C. Log files
D. Launchpad
Answer: ABC
30. Which log files only contain information logged by WebSphere Application Server as it starts up and shuts
down?
A. StartServer.log
B. SystemOut.log
C. StopServer.log
D. Activity.log
Answer: AC

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000-208 Exam Questions - Final Part

Cheat-test.com IBM 000-208 exam prep

Q: 101 A customer is comparing the IBM storage solution with a competitor's
product. What tool shows the customer the value of the IBM solution?
A. eConfig
B. TCOnow!
C. Competeline
D. competitor's website
Answer: B
Q: 102 A customer currently has an EMC CLARiiON, EMC Symmetrix, and an HP
EVA. The customer is running out of storage space. The customer needs to add capacity and reduce
complexity and cost without replacing its existing storage infrastructure. The customer must build out a
business continuity strategy. What is the best strategy?
A. Install an IBM System Storage SAN Volume Controller (SVC) to move to a single management and
replication solution for all vendors and install additional IBM disks as needed.
B. Install IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Disk to manage all the SAN storage so the customer can
determine which data is really needed.
C. Install an IBM System Storage DS8100 and migrate all the data to this system to reduce the complexity of
the environment and add additional capacity.
D. Install an IBM System Storage N5500 system to consolidate the environment and move to a single
platform.
Answer: A
Q: 103 A customer is installing an IBM System Storage DS6800 at its backup data
center. Which storage system can be used to implement Metro Mirror with the main data center?
A. IBM DS4800
B. IBM DS8100
C. IBM EXP 24
D. IBM N5500
Answer: B
Q: 104 The DR550 solution is comprised of a DS4000 with SATA drives, Tivoli
System Storage Archive Manager, and which of the following?
A. System x running Red Hat Linux
B. System x running Windows 2003
C. System p running Linux
D. System p running AIX
Answer: D
Q: 105 Which resource provides IBM Business Partners technical assistance with
their Innovation Centers (BPIC)?
A. Supportline
B. IBM Advanced Technical Support
C. Partnerline
D. IBM Innovation Center
Answer: D
Q: 106 Which is a characteristic of the IBM System Storage SAN Volume
Controller?
A. requires an agent on each server
B. requires no special zoning
C. provides dynamic data migration capabilities
D. provides Out-of-Band performance
Answer: C
Q: 107 A customer consolidates all server storage onto the SAN Volume Controller
with backend DS4700 disk. After the configuration changed, the servers were not able to access the
virtual disks that were assigned. What can be done to isolate the problem?
A. investigate server compatibility
B. investigate the switch zoning configuration
C. investigate the data rate settings on the switch
D. investigate the SDD settings
Answer: B
Q: 108 A customer has several island solutions for backup. The customer plans to
buy a backup solution to consolidate the hardware and to centralize the management. The backup
capacity across all systems is approximately 200 TB. Which is the most cost-effective solution that meets
this customer's requirements?
A. buy a tape library that covers the entire backup capacity; use TSM as a centralized backup management
B. buy a tape library that covers the entire backup capacity; use LAN-free clients to utilize the best bandwidth
to tape
C. implement FlashCopy to provide a second copy of data on disk storage
D. backup to SATA disk because it is more cost effective than tape
Answer: A
Q: 109 A customer has an IBM System Storage DS8100 and wants a second copy of
the data immediately available for disaster recovery purposes. What is the most cost-effective solution?
A. add a second DS8100 at the disaster recovery site
B. add an DS6800 at the disaster recovery site and buy Metro Mirror software for both disk subsystems
C. mirror the data to another disk within the existing DS8100
D. add a DS8100 at the disaster recovery site and buy Metro Mirror software for both disk subsystems
Answer: B
Q: 110 Which product is used to maintain accurate information about a customer's
storage utilization?
A. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Disk
B. IBM System Storage Data Retention 550
C. IBM System Storage SAN Volume Controller
D. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Data
Answer: D
Q: 111 A customer wants to create an HACMP environment using two IBM System
p servers. What is the minimum number of Fibre Channel ports that should be used with each server to
connect the IBM System Storage DS8100?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
Q: 112 Which is a powerful and versatile performance modeling product for IBM,
EMC, and HDS disk subsystems?
A. Disk Magic
B. Capacity Magic
C. Tape Magic
D. TPC for Disk
Answer: A
Q: 113 A customer is adding an IBM System Storage DS4800 for a new Exchange
2003 e-mail solution to meet the following requirements:
-- 20% yearly growth
-- 2,500 mailboxes
-- approximately 50/50 mix of read/write operations
The storage specialist has been asked to model this configuration using the expected workload to verify
the solution. What is needed to start modeling?
A. 73 GB 15K RPM drives
B. the size of the users' Exchange mailbox
C. the number of servers running Exchange
D. Jetstress tool that will be used to emulate the Exchange environment
Answer: B
Q: 114 A customer is currently running a Microsoft Exchange application and is
interested in a new disk storage subsystem. What will have the greatest impact in sizing the subsystem?
A. expected read/write ratio
B. logical volume partitioning
C. expected I/O per second
D. number of users
Answer: D
Q: 115 The customer has a server connected to IBM and EMC storage via a single
SAN. The IBM storage is using SDD and EMC storage is using PowerPath. What is the minimum
number of Fibre Channel host ports needed to provide redundant paths to both storage subsystems?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D
Q: 116 Which technology promises to reduce hardware infrastructure cost while
maintaining block level I/O?
A. DAS
B. NAS
C. SAN
D. iSCSI
Answer: D
Q: 117 A customer is considering the purchase of an IBM System Storage DS4800 to
accommodate future growth for a critical application. The customer has questions about the
administration of the storage system. Which interface will be used for set up and administration of the
storage system?
A. iSCSI port
B. Ethernet port
C. serial port
D. SAS port
Answer: B
Q: 118 A business partner sold an IBM System Storage DS3400 attached to
Windows servers. The customer calls IBM asking for configuration assistance. What is the appropriate
response?
A. It should be suggested that the customer purchase a Supportline contract.
B. The business partner should be contacted.
C. IBM should send in a Field Technical Sales Support (FTSS).
D. IBM should send in the Customer Engineer (CE).
Answer: A
Q: 119 A customer has several IBM System p servers with multiple Fibre Channel
adapters attached to an IBM System Storage DS6800. What provides alternate path failover and load
balancing?
A. Logical Volume Manager
B. Multi Path I/O
C. IBM System Storage TCP for Data
D. Redundant Disk Array Controller
Answer: B
Q: 120 Which LTO3 automated tape solution should be used for cost-effective
storage of 40 TB of mpeg data using IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Space Management?
A. IBM System Storage TS3100 Tape Library
B. IBM System Storage TS3200 Tape Library
C. IBM System Storage TS3310 Tape Library
D. IBM System Storage TS3500 Tape Library
Answer: C
Q: 121 A customer has a write I/O intensive application. What has the greatest
effect on performance?
A. swapping out to a larger drive size
B. memory in server
C. disk drive spindles
D. cache in the disk subsystem
Answer: C
Q: 122 A customer stores 1 TB of data on an IBM System p server. The customer
has major budgetary constraints. Total cost of ownership and 2:1 data compression are the primary
requirements. Which is the best solution for unattended tape backup/restore?
A. IBM System Storage TS3310 Tape Library
B. IBM System Storage TS1120 Tape Drive
C. IBM System Storage TS3100 Tape Library Express Model
D. IBM System Storage TS3200 Tape Library Express Model
Answer: C
Q: 123 A client deployed an IBM System Storage N5500 to support a Microsoft
Exchange implementation via iSCSI. The client needs to improve I/O response times. Which solution
meets the client's requirements?
A. add FCP support to the N5500
B. mount the Exchange files via NFS
C. mount the Exchange files via CIFS
D. migrate the data to SATA drives
Answer: A
Q: 124 A customer is installing a DS6800, along with a SAN Volume Controller
(SVC), and new SAN switches. Which resource lists the total power and cooling requirements for the
DS6800?
A. System Storage sales website
B. PartnerWorld website
C. DS6800 Service Guide
D. DS6800 SAPR Guide
Answer: D
Q: 125 A customer plans to complete migration of mainframe database applications
to System p servers within the next six months. The customer has an immediate requirement for an
additional 20 TB of usable disk space for the System p servers. IBM, HP, Dell, and Sun have been invited
to bid on this opportunity. Which disk product provides the most cost-effective solution?
A. IBM System Storage DS3000
B. IBM System Storage DS4000
C. IBM System Storage N3700
D. IBM System Storage DS6000
Answer: B
Q: 126 A customer is installing an IBM System Storage DS4000 and an ONStor
Bobcat 2200 Series NAS Gateway into its heterogeneous server environment. Which resource provides
details concerning an IBM supported configuration for the solution?
A. IBM Storage Proven
B. IBM Competeline
C. IBM Techline
D. IBM Supportline
Answer: A
Q: 127 A customer needs 2 TB of disk capacity for a streaming video application.
What is the most appropriate and cost-effective IBM disk drive technology for this customer?
A. 300 GB 15K RPM FC
B. 300 GB 10K RPM FC
C. 300 GB 15K RPM UltraSCSI
D. 750 GB 7.2K RPM SATA
Answer: D
Q: 128 A customer has redundant SAN fabrics. An IBM System p server is attached
with dual HBAs for high availability to a SAN-attached DS4800. RDAC is installed on the server. The
switch that connects to one HBA in the server has failed. What is the impact on the IBM System p
server?
A. LUN access, with the primary path that has failed, will be rerouted.
B. All I/Os will be routed through the LAN.
C. Reboot will be required.
D. RDAC will compress data on the surviving path.
Answer: A
Q: 129 Which technology allows for long distance replication over 80 kilometers (50
miles)?
A. FC/IP
B. iSCSI
C. FICON
D. ESCON
Answer: A
Q: 130 A customer has a Windows server with a Serial Attached SCSI (SAS)
adapter. The customer wants a new tape technology that provides Write-Once, Read-Many (WORM)
capability. The customer has no existing SAN infrastructure. Which tape product best meets the
customer's requirements?
A. IBM System Storage TS1030
B. IBM System Storage TS1040
C. IBM System Storage TS1120
D. IBM System Storage TS2230
Answer: B
Q: 131 Which is a primary benefit of SAN switch trunking?
A. increased ISL bandwidth
B. port speed auto-negotiation
C. fabric zone configuration propagation
D. inter-connection of 1-, 2- and 4-Gb switches
Answer: A
Q: 132 A customer has an application that it wants to mirror data between two IBM
System Storage DS4700s. Data loss in the event of a failure is unacceptable. Which data replication
solution best meets the customer's requirement?
A. Global Mirror
B. Metro Mirror
C. FlashCopy
D. Global Copy
Answer: B
Q: 133 What is the name of the IBM Web application that brings IBM brand
information together in one place to help increase IBM Services revenue?
A. Attach Connector
B. TechLine
C. eConfig
D. TCOnow!
Answer: A
Q: 134 Which statement is true about the IBM System Storage Software Solutions
strategy?
A. It supports all IBM server platforms and reduces customer administration.
B. It provides customized APIs to manage selected vendors' hardware.
C. It includes infrastructure and data management across heterogeneous storage infrastructures.
D. It offers 24 x 7 support for hardware, software, and services.
Answer: C
Q: 135 A customer wants to implement an IBM System Storage DS8100 with four
FC host bus adapters for 20 Windows servers. Each Windows server currently has an FC HBA. Which is
the most cost-effective solution that achieves the required connectivity?
A. one IBM TotalStorage SAN32M-2 (2026-432)
B. one Cisco MDS 9216A Fabric Switch (2054-D1A)
C. one IBM TotalStorage SAN256B (2109-M48)
D. four IBM TotalStorage SAN16B-2s (2005-B16)
Answer: A
Q: 136 A customer has an application for sequential data access. This application is
1 TB and uses five or six disk drives. Which device interface gives the customer the best price and
performance?
A. FC-IP
B. iSCSI
C. Ultra3 SCSI
D. FC
Answer: D
Q: 137 A customer plans to install an IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for
Fabric. The current SAN is comprised of both IBM TotalStorage SAN m-type and b-type switch and
director products. Which factor would have the most significant immediate effect?
A. fewer SAN fibre ports
B. lower SAN fabric costs
C. lower SAN backup costs
D. fewer SAN management tools
Answer: D
Q: 138 A customer has a requirement for 4 TB of native data to be stored on an
automated tape library. The customer wants a solution that can address the challenges of tape drive
capacity, speed, and planned growth of 50% per year for five years. Cost is also a consideration. Which
solution best meets the customer's requirements?
A. IBM System Storage TS3200 Tape Library
B. IBM System Storage TS3310 Tape Library
C. IBM System Storage TS3100 Tape Library
D. IBM System Storage TS3500 Tape Library
Answer: A
Q: 139 A customer is interested in updating its infrastructure to provide data
replication capabilities between the corporate offices and a sales office 900 km (540 miles) away. The
customer currently has both UNIX and Microsoft Windows 2003 servers sharing storage resources. Some
applications are very response-time sensitive. Which replication solution is best for this customer?
A. IBM System Storage DS6800 with Metro Mirror
B. IBM System Storage DS4800 with Metro Mirror
C. IBM System Storage DS4800 with FlashCopy
D. IBM System Storage DS6800 with Global Mirror
Answer: D
Q: 140 The customer needs to collect data during a proof of concept to show
performance criteria was met. What is the most cost-effective solution?
A. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center
B. IBM System Storage SAN Volume Controller
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager
D. IBM Workload Manager
Answer: A

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The End

000-208 IBM testking download exam questions - Part 2

Cheat-test.com IBM 000-208 exam prep

Part 2

Q: 51 A customer has Veritas NetBackup installed and is concerned about restore
times for multiple files. Which IBM Tivoli Storage Manager feature addresses this customer's concerns?
A. collocation
B. compression
C. migration
D. subfile backup
Answer: A
Q: 52 A customer environment has grown to include Brocade, McData, and Cisco
SAN Switches. The customer is concerned with the amount of training needed to manage the multiple
interfaces of these products. Which product should the IBM sales representative recommend to the
customer?
A. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center
B. IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager
C. IBM System Storage SAN Volume Controller
D. SAN Health Professional
Answer: A
Q: 53 A windows-based application runs on IBM's compliance solution IBM System
Storage DR550 and should be integrated into a hierarchical storage management (HSM). What should be
considered if lower storage tiers (e.g. Tape or Optical solutions) must be integrated behind the DR550?
A. IBM 3995 (SCSI attached)
B. IBM 3995 (SCSI attached) and TS1120 (FC attached)
C. TS1120 (FC attached) and IBM 3996 (SCSI attached)
D. TS1120 (FC attached)
Answer: D
Q: 54 A customer orders an IBM System Storage DS4000 with dual power supplies.
Which site requirement ensures high power availability?
A. dual rack-mounted UPS devices
B. dual power lines
C. multiple primary power circuits with multiple UPS
D. high-density dual-power distribution units in the rack
Answer: C
Q: 55 What is the maximum capacity of a single-engine fully configured DR550 with
750 GB SATA II drives and a fully configured TS3310 tape library with LT04 drives?
A. 316 TB
B. 168 TB
C. 484 TB
D. 856 TB
Answer: C
Q: 56 A customer currently has LTO Gen 2 tape, located in an IBM 3582 library.
They need to double their tape capacity, but have no additional rack space. They expect to grow by
approximately 20% per year. Which solution meets the customer's requirements?
A. IBM TS1030
B. IBM TS3310
C. IBM TS3200
D. upgrade the IBM 3582 library to Gen 4 tape drives
Answer: C
Q: 57 A customer is installing an IBM System Storage DS6800 at its backup data
center. Which storage system can be used to implement Metro Mirror with the main data center?
A. IBM DS4800
B. IBM DS8100
C. IBM EXP 24
D. IBM N5500
Answer: B
Q: 58 In addition to LUN masking, which administrative task(s) can be performed
with the IBM System Storage DS4000 Storage Manager?
A. port masking
B. LUN expansion
C. port masking and LUN reduction
D. LUN expansion and LUN reduction
Answer: B
Q: 59 When the IBM System Storage DS4000 Remote Mirroring premium feature is
activated, how many Mirror Repository logical drives are created per subsystem?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Answer: C
Q: 60 A customer's current backup environment uses IBM Tivoli Storage Manager
over the corporate 100BaseT network. A 500 GB Oracle database application was recently added to the
SAN. Backup windows are no longer being met. Which action should be recommended by the storage
specialist?
A. implement the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for SAN
B. add an additional Ethernet card to the TSM server
C. virtualize the storage with a SAN Volume Controller
D. implement IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Space Management
Answer: A
Q: 61 A customer needs to implement a centralized disk storage solution to support
three IBM System i servers running i5/OS, and 20 Intel servers supporting a mixture of Novell NetWare
6.5 and Microsoft Windows 2003. Which disk storage solution should a storage specialist recommend to
support this environment?
A. IBM System Storage N3700
B. IBM System Storage DS3400
C. IBM System Storage DS6800
D. IBM System Storage DS4800
Answer: C
Q: 62 A customer has a requirement for 8 TB of data to be stored on tape. The
customer wants the most cost-effective automated LTO3 solution. Which solution meets the customer's
requirements?
A. IBM System Storage TS3310 Tape Library
B. IBM System Storage TS3200 Tape Library
C. IBM System Storage TS3100 Tape Library
D. IBM System Storage TS1030 Tape Drive
Answer: C
Q: 63 A customer requires off-site storage for 500 GB per night in backups. The
backup site is 560 kilometers (350 miles) away. The customer does not require the backup site to run the
application in the event of failure at the main site. Which is the least expensive strategy for the data
center to implement?
A. make online image backups
B. ship nightly backup tapes to the remote site
C. install an HACMP environment and mirror data
D. install IBM Tivoli Storage Manager and IBM System Storage tape drive at the backup site
Answer: B
Q: 64 Which tool calculates raw and effective storage space on a DS8000 or
DS6000?
A. Capacity Magic
B. Disk Magic
C. TCOnow!
D. eConfig
Answer: A
Q: 65 Which cable connector type is required when connecting an IBM System
Storage TS1120 Tape Drive directly to an IBM TotalStorage SAN32B-3 with shortwave small
form-factor pluggable (SFP)?
A. SC-to-SC cable
B. SC-to-LC cable
C. SC-to-ST cable
D. LC-to-LC cable
Answer: D
Q: 66 A customer needs to limit the total time it takes to back up an existing DB2
database. What information is necessary to understand the customer requirements?
A. the amount of data
B. whether the data is random or sequential
C. the size of the disk array
D. the number of days backups are scheduled
Answer: A
Q: 67 A customer indicates that the competition has features that the IBM solution
is missing. What is the recommended resource to better understand competitors' products?
A. IBM Competeline
B. TCOnow!
C. ibm.com website
D. Interoperability Matrix
Answer: A
Q: 68 A customer's IBM System Storage DS4800 has several volumes fail over to
their non-preferred path. What should the customer do prior to contacting IBM technical support?
A. capture state information
B. save MELog
C. capture all support data
D. gather Read Link Status diagnostics
Answer: C
Q: 69 What differentiates an IBM System Storage TS3200 Tape Library from an
IBM System Storage TS3310 Tape Library for an open-system environment?
A. standalone or rack mounted
B. support for TS1120 tape drives
C. logical library sharing
D. upgradeable storage slot capacity
Answer: D
Q: 70 A customer has two Intel-based Linux servers and wants to have 700 GB of
disk to share between them. Disk I/O performance is very important to the customer. The sales team has
recommended an IBM System Storage DS4700. The Intel-based Linux servers are to be located less than
50 meters (164 feet) from the IBM DS4700. The customer wants two Fibre Channel adapters in each
Linux server. How many IBM System Storage SAN Switches are required for high availability at the
lowest cost?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Answer: A
Q: 71 A new client currently has a multi-tier storage environment consisting of
EMC's DMX subsystems. They have expressed displeasure with the high costs of TimeFinder and
additional disks in the DMX systems. Which of the following would provide the lowest cost alternative
for providing instant copies of the DMX LUNs for backups?
A. DS4700 with Fibre Channel drives and Enhanced Remote Mirroring
B. DS4800 with SATA drives, Enhanced Remote Mirroring, and FlashCopy
C. SVC with FlashCopy and a DS4200 with SATA drives
D. SVC with FlashCopy and a DS4700 with Fibre channel drives
Answer: C
Q: 72 A business is expanding its market by supporting order entry via the Internet
and wants to provide continuous access to the new application. Which disk subsystem attribute is most
important in achieving this goal?
A. use of RAID 5
B. large cache size
C. large disk stripe size
D. Fibre Channel interface
Answer: A
Q: 73 A client who recently installed an IBM System Storage DS4800 for Exchange
is now interested in adding a new high performance, data warehouse application to the disk system.
Which configuration on the DS4800 provides the best possible performance for the data warehouse
application?
A. RAID 5 and a large segment size
B. RAID 1 and a small segment size
C. RAID 5 and default cache block size
D. RAID 1 and 32k cache block size
Answer: A
Q: 74 An application development organization has identified performance
requirements for a new application. What would have the LEAST impact on I/O performance?
A. clock rate of the system CPU
B. number of disk drives
C. number of I/O processor adapters
D. amount of system memory
Answer: A
Q: 75 A customer has a heterogeneous environment that is backed up using IBM
Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) attached to a tape silo. Due to network congestion, the expanding data
within the environment can no longer be backed up within the time available. Which action resolves the
network problem?
A. install an additional TSM Server
B. utilize LAN free backups over the SAN
C. install iSCSI to improve block I/O throughput
D. increase the number of tape drives within the silo
Answer: B
Q: 76 A customer has a data center with a DS4700 and a redundant SAN
infrastructure consisting of SAN16B-2 switches. The customer must provide storage for a clustered
Microsoft Exchange environment that is located within the data center but is over 200 meters (656 feet)
away. The servers do not have Fibre Channel connectivity. What is the most appropriate solution?
A. utilizing an N series Gateway and iSCSI
B. using an N series Gateway and Ethernet connectivity
C. using TPC for Replication to mirror the data over the network
D. using SAN Volume Controller
Answer: A
Q: 77 A customer has 600 GB of data that needs to be backed up on a nightly basis
between midnight and 1:30 a.m. The customer has a direct-attached IBM System Storage TS3500 Tape
Library. What is the minimum number of TS1030 drives (without compression) required to accomplish
this?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
Q: 78 What is the maximum capacity of a single-engine fully configured DR550 with
750 GB SATA II drives and a fully configured TS3310 tape library with LT04 drives?
A. 316 TB
B. 168 TB
C. 484 TB
D. 856 TB
Answer: C
Q: 79 Which technology should a storage specialist recommend to a customer who is
backing up and restoring many small files on a tape device?
A. IBM System Storage TS1030 Tape Drive
B. IBM System Storage TS1040 Tape Drive
C. IBM System Storage TS1120 Tape Drive
D. IBM 7206 Tape Drive
Answer: C
Q: 80 A customer has a requirement to mirror data over the network as quickly as
possible. Which network type best meets the customer's requirements?
A. OC12
B. 622 ATM
C. Ultra 320 SCSI
D. 10 Gb Ethernet
Answer: D
Q: 81 When using the FlashCopy feature on an IBM System Storage DS4800, what
is the default storage capacity allocated for copy purposes?
A. 100% of the source's capacity
B. 20% of the source's capacity
C. 50% of the source's capacity
D. 10% of the source's capacity
Answer: B
Q: 82 A customer with an IBM System p server wants to attach an IBM System
Storage DS6800 and needs to know if the System p Fibre Channel adapter is supported. What is the
recommended source for this information?
A. IBM TechLine
B. IBM Storage website
C. IBM DS6800 Installation and Planning Guide
D. IBM Storage Specialist
Answer: B
Q: 83 IBM LTO Ultrium 4 technology has which of the following characteristics?
A. 200 GB capacity per tape and 40 MB per sec data throughput
B. 400 GB capacity per tape and 80 MB per sec data throughput
C. 500 GB capacity per tape and 100 MB per sec data throughput
D. 800 GB capacity per tape and 120 MB per sec data throughput
Answer: D
Q: 84 An IT department needs to migrate its data from a direct-attached single
controller IBM System Storage DS4300 to a clustered environment. The application that was under
testing will be moving to a mission-critical status. The current DS4300 is direct-attached to an IBM
System x 3850 (x366) server. The customer is purchasing three new System x 3850 servers for the cluster,
and wants each to have complete redundancy. Which option is the most cost efficient?
A. IBM System Storage DS6800 with two SAN 32B switches
B. IBM System Storage DS4700 with two SAN 32B switches
C. IBM System Storage DS4800 with two SAN 32B switches
D. IBM System Storage DS3200 with two SAN 32B switches
Answer: B
Q: 85 A customer has an IBM System Storage DS4800 and needs to add more disk
drives to the unit. There is no record of the configuration for this machine. How can the configuration be
retrieved so an MES can be ordered?
A. have the customer contact the IBM AAS coordinator to retrieve a copy of the original configuration
B. manually enter system information into BaseEdit of the eConfig program, and provide proof of purchase
C. use the IBM Standalone Systems Configuration Tool (SSCT) to recreate the configuration
D. contact the IBM Service Support Representative (SSR) to retrieve the configuration from the DS4800
Answer: B
Q: 86 A customer wants to test path failover using a test System p server using
DS4000 storage. The server has two HBA ports in a redundant SAN environment. Which action verifies
the availability of multiple paths before the testing begins?
A. lsdev -Cc disk
B. lsdev -C | grep dac
C. lsdev -C | grep dar
D. lsattr -El hdisk1
Answer: B
Q: 87 To meet new service level agreements, a customer must have 38,000 IOPS
available for its database. The customer currently uses an IBM System Storage DS4300 with 112 15K,
146 GB drives. Which solution should cause the least disruption to the customer?
A. IBM System Storage DS4800
B. IBM System Storage N5500
C. IBM System Storage DS6800
D. IBM System Storage DS8100
Answer: A
Q: 88 A customer has several Intel-based servers with local attached disk. They
recently installed an IBM System Storage DS8100 attached to two UNIX servers for a database
application. The customer is now interested in evaluating duplicate files in their Intel environment.
Which IBM product best meets the customer's requirement?
A. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Data
B. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Disk
C. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Fabric
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager
Answer: A
Q: 89 Which I/O characteristic should lead a storage specialist to recommend to a
customer a RAID 10 implementation on an IBM System Storage DS4700?
A. large number of small block random reads
B. large number of small block random writes
C. large number of large block sequential reads
D. large number of large block sequential writes
Answer: B
Q: 90 Which file type is used for input into the eConfig program to create an MES
to an existing machine?
A. .cfr file
B. .wks file
C. .mes file
D. .txt file
Answer: A
Q: 91 Refer to the exhibit.

A customer with a DS4800 is experiencing problems. They are trying to determine if there is a
component or storage subsystem in the loop that is the root cause. They have run a Read Link Status
Diagnostics over an extended period of time.
Which column would indicate possible problems?
A. ITW
B. LOS
C. LOSG
D. ICRC
Answer: A
Q: 92 Which tool provides the customer with a list of storage components as well as
a basic diagram?
A. eConfig
B. Disk Magic
C. TCOnow!
D. Capacity Magic
Answer: A
Q: 93 Which IBM disk subsystem provides Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) interfaces
for host attachment?
A. Systems Storage TS3400
B. Systems Storage DS3400
C. Systems Storage N3700
D. Systems Storage DS3200
Answer: D
Q: 94 Two Microsoft Windows 2003 servers are located in a site 25 kilometers (15
miles) from the IBM System Storage DS4700. The customer wants two Fibre Channel adapters in each
Microsoft Windows 2003 server. The customer has access to two pairs of dark fiber between the sites.
Which configuration is required for high availability?
A. two switches with multi-mode cabling
B. two switches with single-mode cabling
C. four switches with multi-mode cabling
D. four switches with single-mode cabling
Answer: D
Q: 95 A customer is running Oracle V9 on a Sun server, connected to an EMC
Symmetrix disk array. The database is 1 TB in size and produces about 1 GB of archive logs per day. The
customer is using RMAN to back up the Oracle database to a Sun STK tape silo. The customer has
recently embarked on a technology update program and wants to eliminate hardware that has poor total
cost of ownership. As part of this program, the customer wants to replace the Sun server with an IBM
System p server, the Sun STK silo with an IBM System Storage TS3500 Tape Library and IBM Tivoli
Storage Manager, and the EMC Symmetrix with an IBM System Storage DS6800.
Which migration method provides minimum outage to the customer?
A. establish a direct peer-to-peer connection between the EMC Symmetrix and IBM DS6800; mirror the
database between disk subsystems; stop production; stop peer-to-peer connection; start the database on the IBM
System p server
B. stop production; NFS mount the IBM DS6800 disk onto the Sun machine and copy the databases across the
Gigabit Ethernet network; back up the database to IBM Tivoli Storage Manager; restart production on the IBM
System p server
C. stop production; back up the Oracle database using the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Data Protection for
Databases; restore the database to the IBM System p server; start production on the IBM System p server
D. perform an online backup of the database using IBM Tivoli Storage Manager; restore the backup to the
IBM System p server; stop production; copy accumulated archive logs to the IBM System p server; roll the
database forward; start production on the IBM System p server
Answer: D
Q: 96 What is the maximum number of mirrored pairs that can exist in an
Enhanced Remote Mirroring configuration on a IBM System Storage DS4800?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
Answer: C
Q: 97 Careful review of the solution with the customer reveals that there is one
small component that is not being supported by IBM. What can be done to obtain IBM support for that
component?
A. ask the Customer Engineer (CE) to support the component
B. ask the Installation Planning Representative (IPR) to support the component
C. ask for a Request for Price Quotation (RPQ)
D. ask TechLine/Partnerline to provide support
Answer: C
Q: 98 In addition to IBM System Storage DS3000, which devices are customer
installable?
A. IBM System Storage DS4000 and IBM System Storage TS3500
B. IBM System Storage DS4000 and IBM System Storage TS3310
C. IBM System Storage DS8100 and IBM System Storage TS3310
D. IBM System Storage DS6800 and IBM System Storage TS3500
Answer: B
Q: 99 Which application would most likely benefit from larger segment size?
A. OLTP database
B. file system
C. Web-based CRM
D. streaming video
Answer: D
Q: 100 A customer currently has LTO Gen 2 tape, located in an IBM 3582 library.
They need to double their tape capacity, but have no additional rack space. They expect to grow by
approximately 20% per year. Which solution meets the customer's requirements?
A. IBM TS1030
B. IBM TS3310
C. IBM TS3200
D. upgrade the IBM 3582 library to Gen 4 tape drives
Answer: C

000-208 IBM testking download exam questions - Part 1

Cheat-test.com IBM 000-208 exam prep

Tony Cobain ftp the $79 questions, thanks for the share, Tony.

There are 3 parts for the complete 140 questions

Part 1

Q: 1 A customer reports that its application, an Oracle database, is running queries
rather slowly after migrating the application over to an IBM System Storage DS4800. What should the
storage specialist recommend that the customer do first to help resolve the performance issue?
A. monitor the cache hit ratio for the array being used by the application
B. reallocate the stripe size of the array for better performance
C. monitor the array using the Performance Monitor to determine the issue
D. change the RAID level of the array for better performance
Answer: C
Q: 2 A customer has two SAN islands. One SAN consists of two IBM TotalStorage
2109-M48 redundant fabrics with server access to IBM System Storage DS4700 disk in production. The
other SAN consists of two 2109-F16 redundant fabrics with server access to IBM System Storage DS4300
disk in development. The customer plans to migrate the data residing in the DS4300 to the DS4700 and
keep the SANs separate. Which is the least disruptive and most cost-effective solution for connecting the
two SAN islands?
A. add SAN18B-R
B. add a backbone SAN256B
C. add switch ISL trunking
D. add Cisco 9216A
Answer: A
Q: 3 A client who recently installed an IBM System Storage DS4800 for Exchange is
now interested in adding a new high performance, data warehouse application to the disk system. Which
configuration on the DS4800 provides the best possible performance for the data warehouse application?
A. RAID 5 and a large segment size
B. RAID 1 and a small segment size
C. RAID 5 and default cache block size
D. RAID 1 and 32k cache block size
Answer: A
Q: 4 A customer owns a 500 GB usable RAID 5 SCSI disk subsystem attached to a
single host and wants to increase data throughput, reliability, availability, and serviceability. Cost is a
significant consideration. Which solution meets the customer's requirements?
A. convert the RAID 5 subsystem to a RAID 1 subsystem
B. convert the existing subsystem to dual-attached SCSI
C. replace the existing subsystem with an IBM System Storage DS4000
D. replace the existing subsystem with an IBM System Storage DS3000
Answer: D
Q: 5 When an Oracle database is not cache friendly and has a high number of
writes, which disk technology provides the best performance on the IBM System Storage DS6800?
A. 73 GB 10K RPM disk drives
B. 73 GB 15K RPM disk drives
C. 146 GB 10K RPM disk drives
D. 146 GB 15K RPM disk drives
Answer: B
Q: 6 A customer is adding an IBM System Storage DS4800 for a new Exchange 2003
e-mail solution to meet the following requirements:
-- 20% yearly growth
-- 2,500 mailboxes
-- approximately 50/50 mix of read/write operations
The storage specialist has been asked to model this configuration using the expected workload to verify
the solution.
What is needed to start modeling?
A. 73 GB 15K RPM drives
B. the size of the users' Exchange mailbox
C. the number of servers running Exchange
D. Jetstress tool that will be used to emulate the Exchange environment
Answer: B
Q: 7 A customer currently has an IBM System Storage DS4300 and an EMC CX500
installed in its data center that provides storage capacity for existing Windows servers. The customer
wants to preserve its investment in these systems by implementing an IBM System Storage SAN Volume
Controller to virtualize the storage. What must the customer do with regard to its multi-path I/O drivers
for the Windows servers?
A. The customer needs to use RDAC to manage the multiple redundant paths for the DS4300 and the CX500.
B. The customer needs to migrate to PowerPath to manage the multiple redundant paths for the DS4300 and
the CX500.
C. The customer needs to use RDAC for the DS4300 and PowerPath for the CX500 to manage the multiple
redundant paths.
D. The customer needs to migrate to SDD to manage the multiple redundant paths for the DS4300 and the
CX500.
Answer: D
Q: 8 IBM LTO Ultrium 4 technology has which of the following characteristics?
A. 200 GB capacity per tape and 40 MB per sec data throughput
B. 400 GB capacity per tape and 80 MB per sec data throughput
C. 500 GB capacity per tape and 100 MB per sec data throughput
D. 800 GB capacity per tape and 120 MB per sec data throughput
Answer: D
Q: 9 When a customer has a critical situation, who on the IBM team is the central
point of contact to organize resources to fix the problem?
A. Client Representative
B. Customer Support Representative
C. Field Technical Sales Support
D. Customer Engineer
Answer: B
Q: 10 A customer wants to mix Windows and AIX servers on the same SAN. What
does the customer need to ensure success?
A. the correct number of ports on the SAN switches
B. the proper size disk drives
C. sufficient disk drives for each server
D. zoning of the SAN switches
Answer: D
Q: 11 A customer has several Intel-based servers with local attached disk. They
recently installed an IBM System Storage DS8100 attached to two UNIX servers for a database
application. The customer is now interested in evaluating duplicate files in their Intel environment.
Which IBM product best meets the customer's requirement?
A. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Data
B. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Disk
C. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Fabric
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager
Answer: A
Q: 12 What is the function of the IBM Remote Support Manager (RSM)?
A. monitors system status and e-mails the customer when problems occur
B. monitors system status and pages the customer when problems occur
C. monitors the system environment and provides control of power, fan, and controller activities
D. monitors system health and automatically notifies the IBM Support Center via e-mail when problems occur
Answer: D
Q: 13 Which resource makes it possible for new configurations to be supported by
IBM?
A. Request Detail Document (RDD)
B. Request for Information (RFI)
C. Request for Price Quotation (RPQ)
D. Request a Letter 112
Answer: C
Q: 14 A customer has ten servers including Windows, Solaris, and AIX that need
direct access to a single-tape solution. Which tape solution is the most cost-effective way to meet this
requirement?
A. IBM System Storage TS1120 Tape Drive
B. IBM System Storage TS3200 Tape Library
C. IBM System Storage TS3500 Tape Library
D. IBM System Storage TS2340 Tape Drive
Answer: C
Q: 15 A customer must take one of their IBM System Storage DS4000 storage
servers offline for maintenance. The server is being used in an IBM System Storage SAN Volume
Controller (SVC) environment. What should be done to ensure that there is no impact on the customer's
applications?
A. identify all of the servers attached to the SVC, and take them offline during the DS4000 maintenance
update
B. dynamically migrate the vdisks associated with the DS4000 server to a separate storage server, then
perform maintenance
C. consider that SVC will automatically failover and failback to compensate for this type of situation
D. reassign the mDisks from this DS4000 server to another storage pool within the SVC during the
maintenance update to maintain continuous access to data
Answer: B
Q: 16 A customer currently has multiple Sun Solaris servers and wants 500 GB of
new storage capacity to be partitioned among these processors. The storage will replace older Fibre
Channel disks currently attached to the Sun processors. The customer is migrating the Sun systems to
HP-UX platforms in a few months and wants to preserve as much of the new disk subsystem investment
as possible at that time. If cost is a primary consideration, which IBM storage system is the preferred
choice?
A. IBM System Storage N5200 Gateway
B. IBM System Storage DS4700
C. IBM System Storage SAN Volume Controller
D. IBM System Storage DS6800
Answer: B
Q: 17 A customer has three Microsoft Windows 2003 servers, each with 100 GB of
data. It is recommended that an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager disk pool of storage be used for daily
backups. Assuming a 10% change rate with daily migration to tape, within the ranges below what is the
minimum amount of disk space that needs to be added to the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server?
A. 10 GB
B. 50 GB
C. 150 GB
D. 450 GB
Answer: B
Q: 18 Which IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) feature differentiates TSM from
competitive backup software products?
A. management of IBM and non-IBM tape libraries
B. progressive backup
C. effective management of large disk pools
D. support for servers, desktops, and laptops
Answer: B
Q: 19 A distributor is planning to open five locations, with each location requiring a
local nightly backup of 1 TB of data from a Sun server. Performance and cost are key requirements.
Which is the best solution?
A. IBM System Storage TS1030 Tape Drive
B. IBM System Storage TS1120 Tape Drive
C. IBM System Storage TS3100 Tape Library
D. IBM System Storage TS3310 Tape Library
Answer: C
Q: 20 What is the maximum distance that an IBM System Storage DS4000 can be
mirrored without the use of channel extenders?
A. 5 kilometers (3 miles)
B. 10 kilometers (6 miles)
C. 100 kilometers (62 miles)
D. 300 kilometers (186 miles)
Answer: B
Q: 21 The customer has a server connected to IBM and EMC storage via a single
SAN. The IBM storage is using SDD and EMC storage is using PowerPath. What is the minimum
number of Fibre Channel host ports needed to provide redundant paths to both storage subsystems?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D
Q: 22 A customer wants to use IBM Tivoli Storage Manager to back up five
Microsoft Windows 2003 file and print servers and is asking for advice on storage. The customer's
anticipated daily backup increment is approximately 10 GB, which represents 1% of all of the customer's
data. The customer also anticipates an average retention period of 60 days. The customer makes off-site
storage pool backups daily and sends database backups off-site. What is the minimum amount of tape
capacity needed?
A. 0.6 TB
B. 1 TB
C. 3 TB
D. 5 TB
Answer: C
Q: 23 A customer has EMC CLARiiON, EMC Symmetrix, HP EVA, and both
Brocade and McData switches. The customer has expressed concern about the complexity and cost of its
environment. What can the customer install to better understand its environment?
A. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center Standard Edition
B. IBM System Storage SAN Volume Controller
C. Tivoli Intelligent Orchestrator
D. Tivoli Provisioning Manager
Answer: A
Q: 24 Which of the following is the advantage of the IBM System Storage DS4800
Model 80 over the DS4700 Model 72?
A. Allows for more cache memory
B. Reduces processing power from the device adapters
C. Allows for more drives
D. Minimizes the interconnect bandwidth utilization between clusters
Answer: C
Q: 25 To meet new service level agreements, a customer must have 38,000 IOPS
available for its database. The customer currently uses an IBM System Storage DS4300 with 112 15K,
146 GB drives. Which solution should cause the least disruption to the customer?
A. IBM System Storage DS4800
B. IBM System Storage N5500
C. IBM System Storage DS6800
D. IBM System Storage DS8100
Answer: A
Q: 26 Which is a competitive advantage of the IBM System Storage DS4000
MetaData?
A. The MetaData is stored across all drives in the system.
B. The MetaData is stored on the first five drives in the system.
C. The MetaData must be stored on FC drives.
D. The MetaData is stored in the controller, thereby freeing up additional drive space.
Answer: A
Q: 27 A customer has a medical application running under Windows, which is not
capable of interacting with any System Storage Archive Manager APIs. If IBM's Data Retention solution
DR550 is used, what can be done to address this issue?
A. Use the Ethernet Direct Connection Facility (EDCF) in the DR550 to interact with the application.
B. Use the File System Gateway (FSG) to interact with the System Storage Archive Manager API and the
DR550.
C. Use the JAVA native Interface to attach the application to the DR550, without interacting with the API.
D. Use the JAVA native interface or the FSG to directly attach to the DR550, without interacting with the
System Storage Archive Manager API.
Answer: B
Q: 28 A client deployed an IBM System Storage N5500 to support a Microsoft
Exchange implementation via iSCSI. The client needs to improve I/O response times. Which solution
meets the client's requirements?
A. add FCP support to the N5500
B. mount the Exchange files via NFS
C. mount the Exchange files via CIFS
D. migrate the data to SATA drives
Answer: A
Q: 29 An end-user currently has an IBM TotalStorage 3583 Tape Library with four
LTO1 drives with a 12-slot cartridge I/O station. Additional cartridge slots are required to increase
library storage capacity. What is the most cost effective way to increase the capacity by 4.8 TB
(uncompressed) and still provide 4 drives?
A. Upgrade the library to an IBM System Storage TS3200 Tape Library
B. Upgrade the library to an IBM System Storage TS3310 Tape Library
C. Replace LTO1 drives with LTO4 drives
D. Upgrade the library to an IBM System Storage TS3100 Tape Library
Answer: A
Q: 30 What is the maximum number of mirrored pairs that can exist in an
Enhanced Remote Mirroring configuration on a IBM System Storage DS4300 Turbo?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
Answer: B
Q: 31 A customer's SAN environment has undergone significant growth over the
past two years. During the same time period, the customer's administrative personnel has had a high
turnover rate. The customer asks a storage specialist for help in understanding their environment. The
ability to make some configuration changes to devices would also be beneficial. Which tool should the
storage specialist suggest?
A. TPC Limited Edition
B. IBM Tivoli NetView
C. DS4000 Storage Manager
D. Fabric Manager
Answer: A
Q: 32 A customer plans to increase the storage on a database server. Currently, the
system consists of a Sun server with 7 x 36.4 GB SCSI disk drives attached on a single bus. Expected
growth of data is 70% per year and performance level must be maintained. Which storage solution
should be used to replace the drives and provide the customer with the best long-term solution?
A. IBM System Storage DS4700
B. IBM System Storage DS3200
C. IBM System Storage N3700
D. IBM System Storage DS8100
Answer: A
Q: 33 A customer has an existing 10 TB IBM System Storage DS8100 and needs
offsite data storage 500 kilometers (310 miles) away. What is the lowest cost data replication solution?
A. install an IBM System Storage SAN Volume Controller with Global Mirror at both sites and use a DS4700
at the remote site
B. install Remote Mirror and Copy functions at the production site and install a new DS8100 with Remote
Mirror and Copy functions at the remote site
C. install Remote Mirror and Copy functions at the production site and install a new DS8100 at the remote site
D. install Remote Mirror and Copy functions at the production site and install a new DS4700 with Enhanced
Remote Mirror at the remote site
Answer: A
Q: 34 When an IBM Business Partner needs assistance with pre-sales detailed
product-related information, whom should they contact?
A. Field Technical Support Specialist (FTSS)
B. Service Support Representative (SSR)
C. Inside TeleSales Representative (ITSR)
D. TechLine/PartnerLine
Answer: D
Q: 35 A customer is migrating a 600 GB Oracle database from an older IBM System
p server to a new one. The data is on a 2 TB IBM TotalStorage Enterprise Storage Server (ESS) that is
80% full. What is the easiest way to move the data to the new server?
A. Back up the data with the existing tape library and restore it on the new system.
B. Assign the existing LUNs to the new server and use AIX LVM import to acquire the existing data.
C. Perform FlashCopy to the new LUNs and assign the target LUNs to the new server.
D. Perform Metro Mirror to the new LUNs and assign the target LUNs to the new server.
Answer: B
Q: 36 Which statement is true about LTO Gen 4 technology as it relates to Gen 1
tape?
A. Gen 4 can read from, but not write to, a Gen 1 tape.
B. Gen 1 tape will not fit into a Gen 4 tape drive.
C. Gen 4 tape drive can read from, and write to, a Gen 1 tape.
D. Gen 4 tape drive cannot read from, or write to, a Gen 1 tape.
Answer: D
Q: 37 A customer has reviewed the storage specialist's proposal for a centralized
disk solution supporting Sun, HP, Intel, IBM System p, and System i servers. The customer's feedback
indicates that the solution exceeds its budget. The customer also indicates that it has signed an agreement
outsourcing its System i applications. What is the most appropriate change the storage specialist should
make to the proposal?
A. reduce the amount of disk configured in the subsystem only
B. reduce the amount of disk configured in the subsystem and reduce the SAN port count
C. reduce the amount of disk configured, change the subsystem to IBM System Storage DS6800, and reduce
the SAN port count
D. reduce the amount of disk configured, change the subsystem to IBM System Storage DS4700, and reduce
the SAN port count
Answer: D
Q: 38 A customer is running Tivoli Storage Manager on a System p server with a
single HBA attached to an IBM System Storage DS4000 and an IBM System Storage TS3100. The
customer reports intermittent I/O errors. What should the customer do to resolve this problem?
A. call IBM and open a Problem Management Record (PMR)
B. install the Tivoli device driver
C. install an additional HBA in the server and rezone
D. install DS4000 RDAC
Answer: C
Q: 39 A customer has ten IBM System p servers running AIX. Each system has a
dedicated set of IBM Serial Disk Systems (7133) with a total of 5 TB of data. The customer wants to
consolidate its storage in an IBM System Storage DS6800 to better serve its data warehouse application.
Only two hours of downtime are available for migration. Which is the best method for migrating the
data?
A. back up data to tape and restore on the new IBM DS6800
B. reinstall IBM 7133 drawers with Fibre Channel adapters
C. host mirror the data from the IBM 7133 drawers to the IBM DS6800
D. stop processing and issue the copy command to copy data to the new IBM DS6800
Answer: C
Q: 40 A customer will be using an IBM System Storage DS4000. The customer
requires the highest performance for the database server. Which hardware RAID technology should be
recommended to this customer?
A. RAID 3
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 10
D. RAID 50
Answer: C
Q: 41 A customer wants to implement a disk subsystem that provides high data
availability at the lowest cost. Which solution should a storage specialist recommend?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10
Answer: C
Q: 42 A customer has multiple Microsoft Windows servers with a total of
approximately 1 TB of direct-attached storage. All applications are file I/O oriented. Which solution
most efficiently provides more capacity to each server?
A. IBM TotalStorage EXP24
B. IBM System Storage N3700
C. IBM System Storage DS3200
D. IBM System Storage DS4200
Answer: B
Q: 43 A customer is installing an IBM System Storage DS4000 and an ONStor
Bobcat 2200 Series NAS Gateway into its heterogeneous server environment. Which resource provides
details concerning an IBM supported configuration for the solution?
A. IBM Storage Proven
B. IBM Competeline
C. IBM Techline
D. IBM Supportline
Answer: A
Q: 44 In addition to IBM System Storage DS3000, which devices are customer
installable?
A. IBM System Storage DS4000 and IBM System Storage TS3500
B. IBM System Storage DS4000 and IBM System Storage TS3310
C. IBM System Storage DS8100 and IBM System Storage TS3310
D. IBM System Storage DS6800 and IBM System Storage TS3500
Answer: B
Q: 45 A customer is worried that the proposed solution will have limited scalability
and performance. What can you provide the customer to address these concerns?
A. a proof of concept at an IBM Competency Center
B. IBM Redbooks that show scalable steps
C. evaluation equipment, based on the solution
D. benchmark and industry reports to back up the solution
Answer: A
Q: 46 A customer plans to expand its SAN and consolidate its IBM System p servers
and disk systems onto an 8-node SAN Volume Controller cluster. All 30 servers have dual port HBAs for
high availability. There are two IBM System Storage DS4800 disk systems. What is the minimum
number of switch ports required for this consolidation?
A. 92
B. 94
C. 108
D. 110
Answer: C
Q: 47 A customer has the following configuration:
-- four IBM System x servers
-- one SAN FC switch
-- one IBM TotalStorage DS4400
The customer wants immediate data availability. Its remote site is 2 kilometers (1.24 miles) away.
Which solution meets the customer's requirements?
A. install an IBM System Storage TS3200 Tape Library at the remote location, a second SAN FC switch, and
Tivoli Storage Manager software
B. install an IBM System Storage TS3500 Tape Library with FC drives at a remote location, a second SAN FC
switch, and Tivoli Storage Manager software
C. install an IBM System Storage DS4700 at a remote location, a second SAN FC switch, and remote mirror
software
D. install an IBM System Storage DS6800 at a remote location, a second SAN FC switch, and Metro Mirror
software
Answer: C
Q: 48 What information is most important in creating a proof of concept?
A. hardware interoperability
B. customer expectations
C. customer resources for deployment
D. IBM resources for deployment
Answer: B
Q: 49 As the result of a corporate merger, a customer acquires an IBM 3582 Tape
Library with Gen 1 tape drives. The customer wants to integrate their backup process with the existing
IBM System Storage TS3310 library with Gen 4 tape drives. How can the two environments be
combined?
A. use Tivoli Storage Manager to create a new tape pool on the IBM TS3310, then migrate the data from the
IBM 3582
B. move the tapes located in the IBM 3582 to the IBM TS3310
C. move the Gen 1 tape drives and tapes from the IBM 3582 and install them in the IBM TS3310
D. because the IBM 3582 is incompatible with the IBM TS3310, back up existing data from disk to the IBM
TS3310
Answer: A
Q: 50 An application development organization has identified performance
requirements for a new application. What would have the LEAST impact on I/O performance?
A. clock rate of the system CPU
B. number of disk drives
C. number of I/O processor adapters
D. amount of system memory
Answer: A

document format finished by Fred Hiro


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