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1. A competitor in the IBM Maximo Asset Management (IMAM) domain claims that their product contains pre-built workflows and common tasks that span and integrate across asset applications.
What should a solution advisor do when a customer is considering such a solution?
A. Dispute the vendor's claims that these pre-built workflows even exist.
B. Inform the organization that workflow is an unimportant component in asset .
C. Inform the organization that all vendors have the same pre-built workflows incorporated in their products.
D. Inform the customer that if current business processes do not exactly match these workflows, customization is required.
Answer: D

2. What are two common reporting requirements? (Choose two.)
A. the database connectivity method
B. the number of users in the solution
C. the number of reports being installed
D. ability to send completed reports by e-mail
E. reporting output available in Microsoft Excel
Answer: DE

3. What is a rotating item?
A. A rotating item is an individual item that is defined with a common item number. An item is designated as rotating because one wants to be able to create individual asset records by using the information (Classification, Specification,and Item Assembly Structure) contained on the item record.
B. A rotating item is a set of items that are defined with a specific code. An item is designated as rotating because one does not want to be able to create individual asset records by using the information (Classification, Specification, and Item Assembly Structure) contained on the item record.
C. A rotating item is a set of kits that are defined with a specific description and GL. An item is designated as rotating because one has the single cost to manage prefers to be able to create individual asset records by using the information (Classification, Specification, and Item Assembly Structure) contained on the assembly record.
D. A rotating item is an individual item that is defined with a common item number and can be a spare part. An item is designated as rotating because one wants to be able to create multiple asset records by using the information (Classification, Specification, and Item Assembly Structure) contained on the item set records.
Answer: A

4. What will happen to associated preventive maintenance (PM) records when an asset is decommissioned?
A. There is no automatic method to change the PM(s) status to INACTIVE.
B. The PM(s) will become in INACTIVE if 'Change the Status of All Associated PM(s) to Inactive?' is checked while decommissioning the asset.
C. The only way to change the status of the PM(s) to INACTIVE is to remove the assets from the PM(s) and then change the status of the PM(s) to INACTIVE.
D. If the 'Change the Status of All Associated PM(s) to Inactive?' is not selected during decommissioning, the PM(s) status will remain ACTIVE; however, work order cannot be generated from the PM having a decommissioned asset.
Answer: B

5. Which application is installed with IBM Enterprise Asset Management for providing reporting capability?
A. Open Database Platform
B. External Report Integration
C. Business Objects/Crystal Reports
D. Business Intelligence Reporting Tool
Answer: D

6. What is a feature of the Integration Framework?
A. Allow bulk importing of XML or flat files.
B. Allow bulk importing from Excel spreadsheets.
C. Allow bulk importing from external/legacy system.
D. Allow bulk importing from one database platform to another.
Answer: A

7. A customer's plant maintenance manager invites a solution advisor to discuss Enterprise Asset Management in general and how it might help the maintenance group work more effectively and efficiently.
What should the solution advisor do in the first meeting with the plant maintenance manager?
A. Ask the plant maintenance manager about the company's history, competition, and market value.
B. Ask the plant maintenance manager about their background, education, and professional experience.
C. Ask the plant maintenance manager about current systems in use, issues with the system,and key areas where the manager wants to see improvements.
D. Ask the plant maintenance manager about the number of employees, union representation, and how IBM Maximo Asset Management can represent employees and their skill sets.
Answer: C

8. A company just hired a new plant maintenance manager, and they are concerned about the number of corrupt asset records in the present system. In future they want to prevent this from happening. When implementing the new solution, what is recommended?
A. All maintenance personnel have full access to all records.
B. All maintenance personnel have read-only access to all data.
C. Only a very limited number of personnel have full access to static data records, but all maintenance personnel are able to enter work order data.
D. Maintenance personnel should not be using the system, and should only write entries on printed work orders and hire input clerks to enter these into the system.
Answer: C

9. When discussing plant maintenance with plant maintenance managers, frequently the topic of using preventive maintenance (PM) comes up. If this is used extensively and the PM work orders are regularly completed, what is told by this about the operation?
A. It is likely that equipment will break down frequently.
B. It is likely that equipment will break down infrequently.
C. It shows that maintenance is performed on an as needed basis.
D. It shows that there are frequent crises when it comes to maintaining equipment.
Answer: B

10. Which two aspects of the client's environment will help determine sizing of the solution? (Choose two.)
A. the number of users
B. the number of locations
C. the number of types of hardware
D. the number of security protocols
E. the number of types of operating systems
Answer: AB

11. Which two internet browsers are supported with IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1? (Choose two.)
A. Opera
B. Netscape
C. Mozilla Firefox
D. Google Chrome
E. Microsoft Internet Explorer
Answer: CE

12. Which aspect of the client's environment restricts how an asset management tool can be deployed?
A. which database servers are in use
B. which types of hardware are in use
C. which operating systems are in use
D. which authentication and security protocols are in use
Answer: D

13. With which three other business initiatives does Enterprise Asset Management-a business paradigm-integrate strategic planning? (Choose three.)
A. sales
B. operations
C. maintenance
D. balance sheet
E. human resources
F. capital investment decision-making
Answer: BCF

14. Enterprise Asset Management packages offer a wide range of capabilities. Which three areas of capability are covered by IBM Maximo Asset Management solutions? (Choose three)
A. work orders
B. human resources
C. inventory control
D. preventive maintenance
E. facilities schedule management
F. customer relationship management
Answer: ACD

15. Which three benefits do Enterprise Asset Management solutions provide? (Choose three.)
A. Reduce asset life.
B. Increase productivity.
C. Increase risk and costs.
D. Improve return on assets.
E. Reduce total cost of ownership.
F. Minimize collection on warranty claims.
Answer: BDE

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B. Integrated Solution Console
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager SAN-Free
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Storage Area Network
Answer: D

2. With DB2 there are additional Archive Log possibilities. The Archive log space is used for recovery. Which process is started to clear this Archive Log area?
A. full copy Archlog
B. full database backup
C. no process must be started
D. duplicate copy of the Active Log
Answer: B

3. Which three logs does the recovery log consist of? (Choose three.)
A. Active log
B. Activity log
C. Archive log
D. Active log failover
E. Archive log mirror
F. Archive failover log
Answer: A, C, F

4. When a SnapMirror to Tape feature is used on an N-Series appliance, which type of backup is performed?
A. Image
B. Differential
C. Incremental
D. Progressive
Answer: A

5. When configuring a storage pool for the SnapLock feature, which value should the option Reclamationtype be set to?
A. 10
B. 100
C. No Value
D. SnapLock
Answer: D

6. In the client option file, which option is changed in order to connect to an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server?
A. TCPSport
B. HTTPSport
C. TCPClientaddress
D. TCPServeraddress
Answer: D

7. What are locally deleted Active Directory objects called?
A. casket objects
B. purged objects
C. graveyard objects
D. tombstone objects
Answer: D

8. Which command is issued for disabling automatic expiration process?
A. set retryperiod 0
B. setopt expinterval 0
C. setopt idletimeout 0
D. set summaryretention 0
Answer: B

9. Which command sets the activity log size to 30 MB?
A. set actlog 30
B. set actl size=30
C. set actlog 30 meg
D. set actlog 30 mgmtstyle=size
Answer: D

10. The Administration Center can be used for error checking. Which panel is reviewed for a global overview?
A. Tivoli Monitor
B. Health Monitor
C. Server Connection
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Health Center
Answer: B

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IBM 000-023 Exam - Cheat-Test.com Free 000-023 Sample Questions: 1. A support provider opens a PMR for a customer. Who is the owner of this issue? A. customer B. support provider C. account manager D. IBM Tivoli Support Answer: D 2. What are three correct classifications when reporting a problem? (Choose three.) A. Software B. Hardware C. ICN Number D. Priority Level E. Response Time F. Driver and or Configuration Answer: A, B, F 3. What are two examples of diagnostic Information? (Choose two.) A. script B. dumps C. traces D. file name E. incident history Answer: B, C 4. The ESR/SR tool is used to open, update and report on PMRs online. Whose responsibility is it to grant and deny access to the ESR/SR? A. Primary Contact B. IBM Tivoli Support C. Passport Advantage D. Site Technical Contact Answer: D 5. Which information does the IBM Information Center provide? A. How to access and download IBM software. B. How to change a customer's Primary Contact information. C. Task oriented How to instructions and reference material. D. Updated information regarding PMRs you have opened with IBM Tivoli Support. Answer: C 6. Which Maintenance Delivery Vehicles (MDVs) provides a cumulative, fully supported and formally tested software maintenance package of APAR fixes? A. FITS B. Test Fix C. Fix Pack D. Limited Availability Interim Fix Answer: C 7. Based upon user feedback of the IBM Support Assistant tool, what increased resolution time have they observed? A. 2% B. 5% C. 10% D. 15% Answer: C 8. What is the IBM Tivoli Support response goal for severity 1 PMRs? A. within 1 hour B. within 2 hours C. within 30 minutes D. within 90 minutes Answer: B 9. Which item can be sent to a Support Provider using e-mail as a temporary solution? A. upgrade B. source code C. new release D. hotfix or test fix Answer: D 10. Which is a way to validate that a customer is eligible for support? A. Priority Level B. Analyst's Discretion C. Support Entitlement D. Passport Advantage Answer: C

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D. Database Manager
Answer: D

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B. The Standard view can have custom access rights.
C. A view can only be made Private if the For Module check box is selected.
D. Access rights for a Custom view are inherited from the currently displayed view.
Answer: D

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Answer: CD

4. According to the Standish Group, what percent of IT project failures result from poor requirements gathering, analysis, and management?
A. 30 to 40 percent
B. 40 to 50 percent
C. 50 to 60 percent
D. 60 to 70 percent
Answer: D

5. Which challenge faced by IT projects is most directly addressed with Requirements Management tools?
A. cost
B. time
C. scope
D. compliance
Answer: C

6. What is Requirements Management used for at the board level?
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D. for portfolio and program management
Answer: C

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C. component
D. stakeholder
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C. acceptance tests
D. system requirements
Answer: D

9. What is NOT a characteristic of good requirements?
A. clear
B. correct
C. complete
D. ambiguous
Answer: D

10. What are three characteristics of a good requirements set? (Choose three.)
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C. consistent
D. exhaustive
Answer: ABC

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B. The administrator can disable Application1 security. C. App1Admin can disable Application1 security. D. App1Admin can access the administrative console. Answer: B 4. Aside from the administrative console and the addNode command, what other facilities does WebSphere Application Server provide for federating nodes into cells? A. wsadmin B. The administrative agent C. The Profile Management Tool (PMT) D. Rational Application Developer Assembly and Deploy Module Answer: C 5. When backing up WebSphere Application Server configuration and runtime settings, which of the following commands would be relevant? A. backupConfig -location location B. restoreConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name C. manageprofiles -backupProfile -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name D. wsadmin -backupConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name Answer: C 6. What can the system administrator do to distribute incoming HTTP traffic across a farm of Web servers? A. Enable server affinity for each HTTP server in the cluster B. Implement the Tivoli Access Manager as a load balancer C. Implement the caching proxy server component of the Edge Components D. Use the Load Balancer component of the Edge Components Answer: D 7. What is the sequence of components which would typically be involved in the flow of a request from a Web browser to a servlet? A. External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and EJB Container B. Load Balancer, Embedded HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and Web Container C. Edge Component, HTTP Server Plug-in, external HTTP Server, and Web Container D. External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in, embedded HTTP Server and Web Container Answer: D 8. How could an administrator manage multiple stand-alone application servers on different hosts in a network? By using: A. a job manager which administers multiple application server nodes through administrative agents. B. a deployment manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their node agents. C. a high availability manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their administrative agents. D. an administrative agent which administers multiple application server nodes through their administrative service. Answer: A 9. Which type of server is recommended to be placed in the demilitarized zone (DMZ)? A. Generic servers B. Application servers C. Managed HTTP servers D. Unmanaged HTTP servers Answer: D 10. What is the advantage of deploying more than one messaging engine and linking them together in a topology that has multiple interconnected service integration buses (SIBus)? A. Enable protocol transformation between buses. B. Improve the availability of the persistent storage. C. Spread messaging workload across multiple servers. D. Preserve message ordering through the messaging engines. Answer: C 11. Why does IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment utilize node groups to implement a distributed environment? To: A. segment multiple security domains within a WebSphere cell. B. define the logical grouping of application servers to scale horizontally or vertically. C. enable mixed nodes with different capabilities within the same cell for administration purposes. D. allow application servers having the same applications installed to be grouped logically for workload management. Answer: C 12. A system administrator wants to improve response time and system load of a Web application running in a clustered environment. What might the system administrator attempt to decrease the response time of the Web application? A. Configure dynamic caching B. Enable memory-to-memory replication C. Configure session replication to use a database. D. Ensure that all cluster members are in the same node group. Answer: A 13. A system administrator needs to modify the configuration of an enterprise application within a flexible management environment. The system administrator can make the modification using wsadmin scripts by connecting to which of the following components? A. Node agent B. Job manager C. Work manager D. Administrative agent E. Deployment manager Answer: BE 14. What would have to be configured in order to implement memory-to-memory HTTP Session persistence? A. Dynamic cache service and HTTP plug-in B. Synchronization service and embedded Web server C. Distributed environment settings in the web containers D. Fast Response Cache Accelerator (FRCA) and external Web server Answer: C 15. When configuring automated transaction peer recovery for recovering in-flight transactions from the transaction log, what is required from the file system? A. RAID disks must be used to host the transaction log B. Exclusive read only file locks and the ability to invalidate them C. File locking must be disabled for Network File System Version 4 (NFSv4) D. Lease-based exclusive locks on files Answer: D 16. What are the three possible replication types for the dynamic caching service? A. Client mode B. Server mode C. Not shared D. Push only E. Both push and pull F. Broadcast mode Answer: CDE 17. What is the Data Replication Service (DRS) used for? Please choose three from the following. A. Node agents B. Web servers C. Caching Proxy D. Dynamic cache replication E. HTTP session persistence and failover F. Stateful session EJB persistence and failover Answer: DEF 18. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between a flexible management topology and the network deployment cell? A. Flexible management can be an alternative to the network deployment cell model. B. Flexible management eliminates the need for node agents in a network deployment cell. C. The flexible management topology is a replacement for the network deployment cell. D. The flexible management job manager can perform all the tasks of the deployment manager. Answer: A 19. In order for a deployment manager to participate in a flexible management environment, which one of the following steps must be completed? A. Register directly with the job manager. B. Register with the node agent on the job managers host. C. Register with an administrative agent on the job managers host D. First register with a local administrative agent, and then register with the job manager. Answer: A 20. Which of the following items best gives a reason to perform an unattended installation of WebSphere Application Server? A. The installation for the particular target platform is being done for the first time. B. The installation for the particular target platform has been done before and will be repeated in the future. C. The installation for WebSphere Application Server would initially not be able to include administrative security. D. The installation for the particular target platform is expected to require a lot of adjustments to be done over several installation attempts. Answer: B

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1. The following type of testing requires the test environment most closely resembling the environment at the customer site:
A. Functional test.
B. Unit test.
C. System verification testing.
D. Static testing.
Answer: B

2. The inspection effort indicator is a proxy measure of how well the inspection process was:
A. Prepared.
B. Implemented.
C. Tracked.
D. Timed.
Answer: A

3. Which of the following enables developers to achieve modular designs?
A. Use case diagrams.
B. Analysis and modeling.
C. Componetization.
D. Sequence diagrams.
Answer: B

4. Test reuse delivers most of its return on investment during which phase?
A. Design
B. Implementation.
C. Execution.
D. Maintenance.
Answer: C

5. Early defect removal practices such as inspections:
A. Eliminate the need to apply Quality Predictive Indicators.
B. Reduce overall time to market.
C. Reduce the need for static analysis.
D. Can only be used with the waterfall model.
Answer: A

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000-330 Power Systems Technical Support for AIX and Linux

1.The customer has a 7014­B42, a 7014­T00, and a 7014­T42, each with available space. Which rack/racks support(s) the installation of the BladeCenter H?
A.7014­B42
B.7014­T00
C.7014­T42
D.7014­B42, and 7014­T42
Answer: A

2.Which of the following supports a Linux­based HA solution?
A.SE Linux
B.GPFS for Linux
C.Cluster Systems Manager (CSM)
D.PowerHA Cluster Manager for AIX and Linux
Answer: D

3.How can a company that is concerned about energy costs in the datacenter use Power servers to better manage energy usage?
A.Set energy management parameters with AEM
B.Set energy management parameters with IVM
C.Set energy management parameters within AIX
D.Set energy management parameters with the HMC
Answer: A

4.A customer is consolidating LAMP on Power. They would like to also consolidate Linux x86 OLTP applications. Which of the following should be discussed?
A.Requires PowerVM Lx86
B.Requires AIX 5.3 or later.
C.Native port is recommended
D.Enabled with the AIX Linux Toolkit
Answer: C

5.A large customer has many POWER4 servers that have been sized for their peak workload but are under utilized most of the time. They are at the end of their lease and want to purchase POWER6 servers. Which PowerVM technology will maximize their server utilization?
A.Workload Partitions
B.Partition Load Manager
C.Shared Processor Pools
D.Live Partition Mobility
Answer: C

6.Which of the following is a competitive advantage of IBM PowerVM compared to HP Integrity Virtual Machines (IVM)?
A.PowerVM provides the capability to support shared CPU, memory and I/O resources.
B.PowerVM Editions are supported on Power systems from low to high­end servers and blade servers.
C.AIX and Linux interface directly with the hardware and the hardware ensures isolation is maintained.
D.Processing resources can be dynamically allocated and shared between logical partitions with PowerVM.
Answer: C

7.Which of the following does IBM Fix Central provide to customers?
A.Customer hotline for immediate dispatch of service personnel for critical issues.
B.Designated local service center for each customer location with a maintenance contract.
C.Subscription based on­site service agreement for regularly scheduled system maintenance.
D.Web site access to PTFs and updates for system software, hardware, and operating systems.
Answer: D

8.A mid market customer wants to compare Power Systems performance to HP PA­RISC performance from a complete systems perspective. Which performance metric should be used?
A.RPE2
B.SWAP
C.rPerf
D.SPECint 2006
Answer: A

9.How many network cards can be added to the JS12 and JS22 Blades?
A.JS12 = 1, JS22 = 1
B.JS12 = 2, JS22 = 2
C.JS12 = 1, JS22 = 2
D.JS12 = 2, JS22 = 1
Answer: B

10.Which of the following options for PowerHA Cluster Manager can help simplify implementation and configuration in a DB2 and WebSphere environment?
A.Smart Assist
B.Insight Utility
C.Virtual Image Manager
D.Cluster Systems Management
Answer: A

11.A customer has an 8­core POWER6 570 with 4 active processors. They have dedicated partitions. They have occasional need for additional CPU capacity. They do not want permanent activations and want to have monthly post billing for usage. What type of CoD best meets their requirements?
A.Trial CoD allows short term processor and memory activations.
B.Utility CoD autonomically provides additional processor performance on a temporary basis.
C.On/Off CoD enables processors to be temporarily activated in full­day increments as needed.
D.Capacity Upgrade on Demand (CUoD) allows you to purchase additional processor capacity and dynamically activate it when needed.
Answer: C

12.Which of the following is the appropriate disk configuration for an application that requires faster writes over availability?
A.RAID 0
B.RAID 1
C.RAID 5
D.RAID 6
Answer: A

13.Which IBM technical resource provides guideance, installation and tmplementation examples?
A.IBM InfoCenter
B.IBM Sales Manual
C.IBM Installation Guides
D.IBM Technical Sales Library
Answer: A

14.Which of the following features of Active Energy Manager help customers save energy costs?
A.Power capping
B.Fan speed management
C.Active power leveling
D.Power regulator management
Answer: A

15.Which of the following correctly describes Utility Capacity on Demand?
A.Additional processors can be assigned to any partition and are billed to the customer as units of 1 day.
B.Additional processors can be assigned to any partition and are billed to the customer as units of 1 minute.
C.Additional processors are assigned to the shared processor pool and are billed to the customer as units of 1 day.
D.Additional processors are assigned to the shared processor pool and are billed to the customer as units of 1 minute.
Answer: D

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000-180 p5 and pSeries Enterprise Technical Support AIX 5L V5.3

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1. A customer has several AS/400 servers in their IT infrastructure running V5R2 that they wish to consolidate. The customer wants to simplify their environment and install i5/OS on a p5 590 with 16 1.65GHz processors and 20 i5/OS partitions. The customer plans to use the Advanced Power Virtualization to share their storage, processors, and memory. What considerations and limitations should be reviewed with the customer before the purchase?
A. Resources cannot be shared with an i5 partition when it is put on a pSeries. The i5 partition needs its own 9411-100 tower because of IOP. V5R3 OS or later is required. There is a maximum of two partitions in a 590.
B. Resources cannot be shared between partitions when i5/OS is put on a pSeries. The i5 partition needs its own 9411-100 tower because of IOP. i5/OS can be at V5R2 or a V5R3. Currently only one i5 partition is allowed.
C. V5R3 is required for the i5 partitions. Virtual IO Server is not supported for the i5/OS partitions to share storage. Up to 10 i5 partitions per processor are allowed (a maximum of two processors for up to 20 partitions).
D. Processor and memory resources can be shared between AIX 5L, Linux and i5/os partitions. i5/OS needs to be at V5R3, and Virtual IO Server is not supported for the i5/OS partition to share storage. On a 1.65 GHz POWER5 p5 590 there is a maximum of one partition.
Answer: C

2. A customer wants to use Virtual SCSI disks to boot multiple operating systems from the same disk. How will the volumes appear in the Virtual IO Server and how will the logical volumes appear in the partition?
A. The Virtual SCSI disks are defined as logical volumes in the Virtual IO Server. The logical volumes appear as real devices (hdisks) in the client partitions.
B. The Virtual IO adapters are connected to a virtual host bridge. On the Virtual IO Server they are vdisks, on the client partition, the exported disks are visible as virtual disks.
C. The Virtual SCSI disks are represented in the ODM as a bus device whose parent is sysplanar0. Logical volumes will be assigned to the Virtual IO Server and virtual disks, vdisks, in the client partition.
D. The Virtual IO adapters are represented as adapter devices with the virtual host bridge as their parent. On the Virtual IO Server they are vdisks attached to vscsi, on the client partition the exported disks are visible as virtual disks.
Answer: A

3. A customer has purchased a p5 590 with 16 CPUs. To run Simultaneous Multi-Threading (SMT) with a 4-way virtual processor partition with 2.0 processing units of entitlement, how many logical CPUs will be allocated?
A. 8-way logical CPU partition, where each logical CPU has the power of 25% of a logical processor
B. 4-way logical CPU partition, where each logical CPU has the power of 50% of a physical processor
C. 8-way logical CPU partition, where each logical CPU has the power of 25% of a physical processor
D. 16-way logical CPU partition, where each logical CPU has the power of 25% of a physical processor
Answer: C

4. A customer wants to buy a new p5 570 running AIX 5.3. The applications require 4 processors and 8GB of memory. There is a requirement to have a Virtual IO Server. What is the smallest p5 570 that should be sold to this customer?
A. 4 processors 8GB of memory
B. 5 processors 8GB of memory
C. 4 processors 10GB of memory
D. 5 processors 10GB of memory
Answer: D

5. A customer has just installed a p5 595 with four uncapped LPARs in a shared processor pool. The system and profile settings are still in their default states. One of the LPARs has an application that is consuming all of the available shared processor resources. Users of this application are complaining about response time. Which of the following changes to the slow LPAR would improve response time?
A. Enable SMT
B. Reduce the weight
C. Renice the process
D. Increase the weight
Answer: D

6. A customer has restored their mksysb. They notice that the external volume groups cannot be seen. What should be done to access the volume groups? A. Run importvg command
B. Run synclvodm command
C. Recreate volume groups
D. Update /etc/filesystems
Answer: A

7. A customer is purchasing a p5 595 as part of a large server consolidation. They are planning on using micropartitioning and Virtual IO to consolidate small machines. They used the rPerf numbers for AIX 5.3 to size their solutions. They discovered that their application is not yet certified on AIX 5.3, so they will have to use AIX 5.2. What changes should be made to their configuration?
A. Increase memory
B. Add more adapters
C. Increase both processors and adapters
D. Increase the number of processors by 20 - 30%
Answer: C

8. A customer is moving their application to a p5 590 and at the same time moving to a new version of the application. The customer knows only about the resource requirements of the old version. Which of the following is the best method to migrate their application to POWER5?
A. Add CPU and memory COD so they have room to grow if required
B. Make the server configuration twice as large as the current requirement
C. Configure the server for the current capacity requirements
D. Make the server configuration a little larger than the current capacity requirements
Answer: A

9. A large customer is consolidating their pSeries systems onto a p5 590. They will have a requirement for a single device (disk, lun) to have multiple paths through different adapters in a single LPAR. The primary applications were written for AIX 5.2. Which of the following would be the recommended solution to satisfy this requirement?
A. Assign the adapters to a Virtual IO partition
B. Use the MPIO function included in AIX 5.2
C. Migrate the application to AIX 5.3 and use the MPIO function
D. Set up two Virtual IO partitions and attach both partitions to the device
Answer: B

10. A customer has a requirement for an LPAR in their p5 595 to run SUSE Linux. They also require an adapter that is not currently supported in Linux. Which of the following would be the best solution to recommend?
A. Assign the adapter to an IO Hosting partition
B. Use AIX 5L affinity to move the application from SUSE to AIX
C. Use AIX 5.3 drivers to install the adapter in the Linux LPAR
D. Assign the adapter to an AIX 5.3 partition running Linux Affinity
Answer: A

11. A customer has seven days of vmstat data on four p5 590 production LPARs of four processors each. The data shows that all four LPARs have periodic utilizations of 90-95% lasting several minutes in duration. However, the average utilizations of the four LPARs were between 15-30%. The vmstat data shows that the peak utilizations of each LPAR do not occur at the same time. Which of the following should be set up?
A. A shared pool with four capped LPARs
B. A shared pool with four uncapped LPARs
C. Four dedicated LPARs and use DLPAR to manage resources effectively
D. The server in SMP mode and use WLM to manage resources effectively
Answer: B

12. A customer has seven days of vmstat data on a p5 590. The server has a total of four test/dev LPARs and 4 production LPARs of one processor each. On the four test/dev LPARs, the data shows 90-95% peak utilizations with a duration of from 5 to 10 minutes. The average utilizations of all LPARs were between 15-30%. All of the applications have different times when they peak. What is the best configuration to fully utilize the processor resource?
A. Set up the server in SMP mode and use WLM to manage resources effectively
B. Set up eight dedicated LPARs and use DLPAR to manage resources effectively
C. Set up a shared pool with eight capped LPARs including production and test/dev
D. Set up a shared pool with eight uncapped LPARs with priority weight to Production
Answer: D

13. A customer is purchasing a p5 590 which was configured with 60 Amp line cords. They have just indicated that their large datacenter is already wired for 100 Amp power circuits in the location where the server will be installed. What would be the recommended action?
A. Use the 60 Amp line cords
B. Change the 100 Amp connector to a 60 Amp circuit
C. Submit an RPQ to order the p5 590 with 100 Amp power cords
D. Change the configuration and order the p5 590 with the 100 Amp power cords
Answer: D

14. A customer is purchasing a 64-way p5 595. They have determined the location for the server is in a datacenter which does not have a raised floor. Which of the following would best meet the server requirements?
A. The server must be installed into a location with a raised floor for optimum system cooling and cable management.
B. The server should be purchased as a p5 590 and then upgraded to a p5 595. This will eliminate the need for a raised floor environment.
C. The server should be purchased as 32-way p5 595 and then upgraded to a 64-way. This will eliminate the need for a raised floor environment.
D. The server can be installed into a location without a raised floor if an RPQ is obtained. It is a strong IBM recommendation for a raised floor, not a requirement.
Answer: A

15. A customer has plans to deploy a large database solution. Their primary requirement is minimal user access downtime. They are comparing a single server implementation with a two server deployment. What solution would they use to avoid downtime for OS software maintenance?
A. Apply OS updates once a year
B. Utilize a GPFS cluster solution
C. Implement a two server deployment with HACMP
D. Install a single server implementation with HACMP failover to a second LPAR
Answer: C

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1.A manager interacts with an expense application via a human task. What action is appropriate to take if an obscure exception occurs when the manager enters a response and completes the task?
A.Edit the business data from Failed Event Manager and re­submit the failed event.
B.Resubmit the failed event with trace using Failed Event Manager for further troubleshooting.
C.Delete the failed event from Failed Event Manager, then stop and re­start the TaskContainer.
D.Query the failed event using Failed Event Manager, then send the information to the developer.
Answer: B

2.The SystemOut.log indicates that the installation of an enterprise application failed. If the application contains WebSphere Adapter artifacts, what must be done before attempting to reinstall?
A.Remove any SIBus destinations or JCA activation specifications created prior to the failure.
B.Remove the Event Archive table created prior to the failure.
C.Create new Endpoint Listener to replace the one existed prior to the failure.
D.Create necessary SIBus destinations and JCA activation specifications manually.
Answer: A

3.Creation of a new profile failed with following error: Wait until the current creation or deletion operation is complete before continuing. In order to proceed with new profile creation, what must the administrator do next?
A.Stop the server, then restart the Profile Wizard.
B.Terminate any running javaw.exe process.
C.Make sure to enter a unique profile name from the wizard.
D.Delete profileRegistry.xml_LOCK file to release the lock.
Answer: D

4.An event failure occurred due to wrong date format which was sent from component A to component B. What will the Failed Event Manager allow an administrator to do?
A.Edit the date value and resubmit
B.Create a human task to notify the event originator
C.Bypass component B
D.Re­route the message
Answer: A

5.When using WebSphere Process Server V6.0.1, the installation of a business process that was generated for WebSphere Process Server V6.0.0 throws UnexpectedFailureException exception. Which of the following must the administrator do next?
A.Regenerate business process code in V6.0.1 and reinstall.
B.Run serviceDeploy tool to resolve this problem.
C.Make sure that Business Process Container has been installed.
D.Rename the module containing the business process different from the previous version.
Answer: A

6.The TaskContainer application failed to start due to missing SchedulerCalendars application. Which of the following tasks must the administrator complete to correct the situation?
A.Reinstall Human Task Container which will reinstall the SchedulerCalendars application.
B.Manually install the SchedulerCalendars application, which is available in \installableApps directory.
C.Reconfigure the human task container to use Application Scheduler instead.
D.Running bpeconfig.jacl will make SchedulerCalendars application accessible from TaskContainer application.
Answer: B

7.The installation of a business integration application fails. The server log displays a message of the form: ... BPED0202I: Validated process model 'OrderProcess' unsuccessfully: 0 information, 2 warnings, 1 error. What should the administrator do to complete the application installation?
A.Turn detailed tracing on and install again to capture details on the installation failure.
B.Update the validFrom value for the OrderProcess component and reinstall.
C.Return the application to developer to fix errors in OrderProcess.
D.Return the application to developer to rebuild staging projects.
Answer: C

8.During the execution of a business process instance, which of the following events CANNOT be seen in the trace log if the business process container trace level is set to all=enabled?
A.A new process instance getting created
B.An activity instance getting created
C.An event message delivery
D.A staff query result
Answer: D

9.The log.txt contains INSTCONFPARTIALSUCCESS. In order to resolve the incomplete product installation, an administrator must do which two of the following?
A.Run installver_wbi command to install missing files through the tool.
B.Run the Installation Verification Test to detect if the error can be ignored.
C.Verify the installed files against the bill of materials using installver_wbi command.
D.Rename vpd.properties file, then re­run the installer.
E.Check to see if other log files identify the errors.
Answer: C, E

10.A long­running business process appears to have stopped due to repeated reply message delivery failures. Which of the following is the appropriate action for an administrator to take?
A.Re­send the response message through SIBus mediation layer.
B.Re­submit the message using the Failed Event Manager with trace on.
C.Restart the process instance through BPC Explorer.
D.Set the continueOnError attribute to true from Administrative Console.
Answer: B

11.With tracing enabled for the staff support service, the following message indicates a problem exists reading which file? javax.xml.transform.TransformerException: org.xml.sax.SAXParseException: Element type "xsl:template" must be followed by either attribute specifications, ">" or "/>"
A.actionSet.xsl
B.collectionTab.xsl
C.EverybodyTransformation.xsl
D.LDAPTransformation.xsl
Answer: D

12.In which of the following topologies can the JDBC WebSphere Adapter be deployed to WebSphere Process Server?
A.As a standalone RAR
B.As part of an integration application
C.As part of an adapter application
D.As either a standalone RAR or part of an integration application
Answer: B

13.An administrator plans to distribute an Service Component Architecture (SCA) module that contains a business process. Which of the following conditions must be met for successful distribution into a clustered environment?
A.In the cluster, one server must be running and the business process container must be configured on each server.
B.In the cluster, each server must be running and the business process container must be configured on one server.
C.In the cluster, each server must be running.
D.In the cluster, the business process container must be installed and configured on one server.
Answer: A

14.An application has been installed with the following JMS binding: Connection JNDI Lookup Name is "jms/myLookupName". Which of the following resources needs to be established to support this binding?
A.JMS activation specification
B.JMS topic
C.JMS topic connection factory
D.JMS queue connection factory
Answer: A

15.It has been determined that business process instance data must be deleted via Business Process Container Explorer. What level of authorization will allow the deletion of process instances that are either finished or terminated?
A.Originator
B.Administrator
C.Owner
D.Editor
Answer: B

16.It has been determined that a process instance must be terminated. Compensation has been defined for the process model. What will be the effect if the administrator selects Terminate from the Business Process Choreographer Explorer?
A.The process instance is stopped and compensation processing is started.
B.The process instance is stopped and compensation processing is not started.
C.The process instance is stopped immediately while waiting for any outstanding activities or tasks to complete.
D.Nothing. Process instances with compensation cannot be terminated.
Answer: A

17.Which option should be specified when installing an application containing Web services using the wsadmin command?
A.­deployws
B.­wsdeploy
C.­configws
D.­usedefaultbindings
Answer: A

18.An application has been configured and installed with two JNDI lookup names, one for replies and the other for lookups. What resources must be configured by the administrator to support this configuration?
A.Two JMS activation specifications
B.Two JMS queues
C.Two JMS queue connection factories
D.Two JMS connection factories
Answer: B

19.An administrator unsuccessfully attempted to deploy an enterprise application that contained a business process model. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the failed deployment?
A.The process template is in a stopped status.
B.The Business Process Choreographer database is not accessible.
C.A version of process template already exists.
D.An enterprise application already has a valid process template.
Answer: B

20.In which case is the Human Task Container installed but not yet configured?
A.When the bpeconfig.jacl script has just been run
B.When the sibwsInstall.jacl script has just been run
C.When the Human Task Container has just been installed via the Administrative console "Human Task Container Installation wizard"
D.When the base installation of WebSphere Process Server has just been completed
Answer: C

21.In order to support the business rules manager in a clustered WebSphere Process Server configuration, which of the following configuration changes must the administrator make?
A.Install and configure the business rules manager on each server in the cluster.
B.Install and configure the business rules manager on a single server in the cluster.
C.Configure a profile for the business rules manager.
D.Augment the Deployment Manager profile with the business rules manager configuration.
Answer: B

22.An administrator wants two installations, a WebSphere Application Server V5.1 and a WebSphere Process Server V6.0, to coexist on the same server. What steps must the administrator take to allow the products to coexist?
A.Install WebSphere Process Server first and then make administrative changes to prevent port conflicts
so that both products can coexist.
B.Once the WebSphere Process Server installation detects the installation, select the coexistence option
to configure ports and resources to allow for coexistence.
C.Confirm that WebSphere Application Server has Fix Pack 2 installed to support compatible embedded messaging.
D.The two products cannot coexist on the same machine.
Answer: B

23.An enterprise has implemented an LDAP schema that uses different object classes and attributes than the WebSphere Process Server defaults. Which file would need modification to map staff verbs to LDAP queries?
A.Verb set file
B.LDAP transformation file
C.User registry transformation file
D.Web server plugin configuration file
Answer: B

24.For a clustered Business Process Choreographer setup, what needs to be considered when using Cloudscape for the business process container database?
A.Each business process container must connect to the database using the embedded version of Cloudscape.
B.Each business process container must connect to the database using the Cloudscape Network Server.
C.The deployment manager must connect to the database using the Cloudscape Network Server.
D.Cloudscape is not supported for a clustered Business Process Choreographer setup.
Answer: D

25.What must an administrator do to ensure that the Business Process Container is running?
A.Use the administrative console or run a JACL script to confirm the Business Process Container is pointing to the appropriate databases.
B.Select the enable option via the administrative console and ensure the console reports the Business Process Container is successfully enabled.
C.Install and configure the Business Process Container via JACL scripts or the administrative console as it is not installed by default.
D.No specific validation is necessary as it is installed by default with WebSphere Process Server but must be configured via a configuration JACL script.
Answer: C

26.An administrator has attempted to federate a WebSphere Process Server node to a deployment manager, but the federation of the node fails. Which two of the following would prevent successful federation of the node?
A.The deployment manager is configured to use SOAP as the JMX connector type.
B.Security has been disabled on the deployment manager node.
C.The deployment manager is not running.
D.The deployment manager is configured to use remote method invocation (RMI)as the JMX connector type.
E.The deployment manager is a WebSphere Process Server profile.
Answer: C, D

27.To prepare to use the Business Process Choreographer in a clustered environment, what database considerations must be made when planning the installation?
A.For a Cloudscape database, configuration must be done so that cluster members can access the data in a distributed environment.
B.A valid installation of DB2, Oracle, Informix or SQL Server must be made available so that the Business Process Choreographer can be configured to it during configuration.
C.The database that the Business Process Choreographer will use must be on the same machine as the Network Deployment installation due to current product restrictions.
D.The BPCDB.JACL script must be run to create the appropriate databases for the Business Process Choreographer prior to performing the installation so that the installation can successfully complete.
Answer: B

28.In order for the LDAP Plugin Staff Provider to anonymously log into the LDAP server, which of the following properties of the LDAP plugin need NOT be configured?
A.AuthenticationAlias
B.AuthenticationType
C.ContextFactory
D.ProviderURL
Answer: A

29.Monitoring of business process events can be enabled by performing which of the following actions?
A.Installing and configuring the CEI logging feature in WebSphere Process Server.
B.Installing and configuring the CEI logging feature in WebSphere Application Server.
C.Enabling CEI logging within the Business Process container.
D.Configuring logging parameters within the jlog.properties file for the WebSphere Process Server installation.
Answer: C

30.Which of the following is true about the Business Rules Manager installation and configuration?
A.It is installed with the default installation of WebSphere Process Server and must be configured after installation.
B.It is a separate component of WebSphere Process Server that must be installed and configured prior to being used.
C.It uses a database that can not be shared in nodes across a cluster without additional configuration.
D.It is a feature of WebSphere Application Server that can be enabled within WebSphere Process Server
Answer: B