2009 IBM 000-210 certification

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(000-001) Fund of Applying Maximo Enterprise Asset Mgmt Sol 09

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Free 000-001 Sample Questions:

1. A competitor in the IBM Maximo Asset Management (IMAM) domain claims that their product contains pre-built workflows and common tasks that span and integrate across asset applications.
What should a solution advisor do when a customer is considering such a solution?
A. Dispute the vendor's claims that these pre-built workflows even exist.
B. Inform the organization that workflow is an unimportant component in asset .
C. Inform the organization that all vendors have the same pre-built workflows incorporated in their products.
D. Inform the customer that if current business processes do not exactly match these workflows, customization is required.
Answer: D

2. What are two common reporting requirements? (Choose two.)
A. the database connectivity method
B. the number of users in the solution
C. the number of reports being installed
D. ability to send completed reports by e-mail
E. reporting output available in Microsoft Excel
Answer: DE

3. What is a rotating item?
A. A rotating item is an individual item that is defined with a common item number. An item is designated as rotating because one wants to be able to create individual asset records by using the information (Classification, Specification,and Item Assembly Structure) contained on the item record.
B. A rotating item is a set of items that are defined with a specific code. An item is designated as rotating because one does not want to be able to create individual asset records by using the information (Classification, Specification, and Item Assembly Structure) contained on the item record.
C. A rotating item is a set of kits that are defined with a specific description and GL. An item is designated as rotating because one has the single cost to manage prefers to be able to create individual asset records by using the information (Classification, Specification, and Item Assembly Structure) contained on the assembly record.
D. A rotating item is an individual item that is defined with a common item number and can be a spare part. An item is designated as rotating because one wants to be able to create multiple asset records by using the information (Classification, Specification, and Item Assembly Structure) contained on the item set records.
Answer: A

4. What will happen to associated preventive maintenance (PM) records when an asset is decommissioned?
A. There is no automatic method to change the PM(s) status to INACTIVE.
B. The PM(s) will become in INACTIVE if 'Change the Status of All Associated PM(s) to Inactive?' is checked while decommissioning the asset.
C. The only way to change the status of the PM(s) to INACTIVE is to remove the assets from the PM(s) and then change the status of the PM(s) to INACTIVE.
D. If the 'Change the Status of All Associated PM(s) to Inactive?' is not selected during decommissioning, the PM(s) status will remain ACTIVE; however, work order cannot be generated from the PM having a decommissioned asset.
Answer: B

5. Which application is installed with IBM Enterprise Asset Management for providing reporting capability?
A. Open Database Platform
B. External Report Integration
C. Business Objects/Crystal Reports
D. Business Intelligence Reporting Tool
Answer: D

6. What is a feature of the Integration Framework?
A. Allow bulk importing of XML or flat files.
B. Allow bulk importing from Excel spreadsheets.
C. Allow bulk importing from external/legacy system.
D. Allow bulk importing from one database platform to another.
Answer: A

7. A customer's plant maintenance manager invites a solution advisor to discuss Enterprise Asset Management in general and how it might help the maintenance group work more effectively and efficiently.
What should the solution advisor do in the first meeting with the plant maintenance manager?
A. Ask the plant maintenance manager about the company's history, competition, and market value.
B. Ask the plant maintenance manager about their background, education, and professional experience.
C. Ask the plant maintenance manager about current systems in use, issues with the system,and key areas where the manager wants to see improvements.
D. Ask the plant maintenance manager about the number of employees, union representation, and how IBM Maximo Asset Management can represent employees and their skill sets.
Answer: C

8. A company just hired a new plant maintenance manager, and they are concerned about the number of corrupt asset records in the present system. In future they want to prevent this from happening. When implementing the new solution, what is recommended?
A. All maintenance personnel have full access to all records.
B. All maintenance personnel have read-only access to all data.
C. Only a very limited number of personnel have full access to static data records, but all maintenance personnel are able to enter work order data.
D. Maintenance personnel should not be using the system, and should only write entries on printed work orders and hire input clerks to enter these into the system.
Answer: C

9. When discussing plant maintenance with plant maintenance managers, frequently the topic of using preventive maintenance (PM) comes up. If this is used extensively and the PM work orders are regularly completed, what is told by this about the operation?
A. It is likely that equipment will break down frequently.
B. It is likely that equipment will break down infrequently.
C. It shows that maintenance is performed on an as needed basis.
D. It shows that there are frequent crises when it comes to maintaining equipment.
Answer: B

10. Which two aspects of the client's environment will help determine sizing of the solution? (Choose two.)
A. the number of users
B. the number of locations
C. the number of types of hardware
D. the number of security protocols
E. the number of types of operating systems
Answer: AB

11. Which two internet browsers are supported with IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1? (Choose two.)
A. Opera
B. Netscape
C. Mozilla Firefox
D. Google Chrome
E. Microsoft Internet Explorer
Answer: CE

12. Which aspect of the client's environment restricts how an asset management tool can be deployed?
A. which database servers are in use
B. which types of hardware are in use
C. which operating systems are in use
D. which authentication and security protocols are in use
Answer: D

13. With which three other business initiatives does Enterprise Asset Management-a business paradigm-integrate strategic planning? (Choose three.)
A. sales
B. operations
C. maintenance
D. balance sheet
E. human resources
F. capital investment decision-making
Answer: BCF

14. Enterprise Asset Management packages offer a wide range of capabilities. Which three areas of capability are covered by IBM Maximo Asset Management solutions? (Choose three)
A. work orders
B. human resources
C. inventory control
D. preventive maintenance
E. facilities schedule management
F. customer relationship management
Answer: ACD

15. Which three benefits do Enterprise Asset Management solutions provide? (Choose three.)
A. Reduce asset life.
B. Increase productivity.
C. Increase risk and costs.
D. Improve return on assets.
E. Reduce total cost of ownership.
F. Minimize collection on warranty claims.
Answer: BDE

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(000-001) Fund of Applying Maximo Enterprise Asset Mgmt Sol 09
(000-010) Fundamentals of Applying Tivoli Service Mgmt Solution 2008
(000-011) IBM Tivoli Ap Dependency + Discovery Mgr V7.1 Implementation
(000-012) IBM Tivoli Usage & Accounting Manager V7.1 Implementation
(000-013) Applying Fundamentals of Enterprise Solutions Using IBM
(000-014) IBM Tivoli Storage Manager FastBack V5.5 Specialist
(000-015) IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1 Implementation
(000-016) IBM Tivoli Asset Management for IT V7.1 Implementation
(000-017) Foundations of Tivoli process automation engine V7.1
(000-018) IBM Tivoli Service Request Manager V7.1 Implementation
(000-019) IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.8 Implementation

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1. A customer requires a large file server backup in the least time possible by using a storage area network (SAN) environment. Which component should be installed on the file server in order to achieve this?
A. Tivoli Management Console
B. Integrated Solution Console
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager SAN-Free
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Storage Area Network
Answer: D

2. With DB2 there are additional Archive Log possibilities. The Archive log space is used for recovery. Which process is started to clear this Archive Log area?
A. full copy Archlog
B. full database backup
C. no process must be started
D. duplicate copy of the Active Log
Answer: B

3. Which three logs does the recovery log consist of? (Choose three.)
A. Active log
B. Activity log
C. Archive log
D. Active log failover
E. Archive log mirror
F. Archive failover log
Answer: A, C, F

4. When a SnapMirror to Tape feature is used on an N-Series appliance, which type of backup is performed?
A. Image
B. Differential
C. Incremental
D. Progressive
Answer: A

5. When configuring a storage pool for the SnapLock feature, which value should the option Reclamationtype be set to?
A. 10
B. 100
C. No Value
D. SnapLock
Answer: D

6. In the client option file, which option is changed in order to connect to an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server?
A. TCPSport
B. HTTPSport
C. TCPClientaddress
D. TCPServeraddress
Answer: D

7. What are locally deleted Active Directory objects called?
A. casket objects
B. purged objects
C. graveyard objects
D. tombstone objects
Answer: D

8. Which command is issued for disabling automatic expiration process?
A. set retryperiod 0
B. setopt expinterval 0
C. setopt idletimeout 0
D. set summaryretention 0
Answer: B

9. Which command sets the activity log size to 30 MB?
A. set actlog 30
B. set actl size=30
C. set actlog 30 meg
D. set actlog 30 mgmtstyle=size
Answer: D

10. The Administration Center can be used for error checking. Which panel is reviewed for a global overview?
A. Tivoli Monitor
B. Health Monitor
C. Server Connection
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Health Center
Answer: B

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Exam code: 000-023
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IBM 000-023 Exam - Cheat-Test.com Free 000-023 Sample Questions: 1. A support provider opens a PMR for a customer. Who is the owner of this issue? A. customer B. support provider C. account manager D. IBM Tivoli Support Answer: D 2. What are three correct classifications when reporting a problem? (Choose three.) A. Software B. Hardware C. ICN Number D. Priority Level E. Response Time F. Driver and or Configuration Answer: A, B, F 3. What are two examples of diagnostic Information? (Choose two.) A. script B. dumps C. traces D. file name E. incident history Answer: B, C 4. The ESR/SR tool is used to open, update and report on PMRs online. Whose responsibility is it to grant and deny access to the ESR/SR? A. Primary Contact B. IBM Tivoli Support C. Passport Advantage D. Site Technical Contact Answer: D 5. Which information does the IBM Information Center provide? A. How to access and download IBM software. B. How to change a customer's Primary Contact information. C. Task oriented How to instructions and reference material. D. Updated information regarding PMRs you have opened with IBM Tivoli Support. Answer: C 6. Which Maintenance Delivery Vehicles (MDVs) provides a cumulative, fully supported and formally tested software maintenance package of APAR fixes? A. FITS B. Test Fix C. Fix Pack D. Limited Availability Interim Fix Answer: C 7. Based upon user feedback of the IBM Support Assistant tool, what increased resolution time have they observed? A. 2% B. 5% C. 10% D. 15% Answer: C 8. What is the IBM Tivoli Support response goal for severity 1 PMRs? A. within 1 hour B. within 2 hours C. within 30 minutes D. within 90 minutes Answer: B 9. Which item can be sent to a Support Provider using e-mail as a temporary solution? A. upgrade B. source code C. new release D. hotfix or test fix Answer: D 10. Which is a way to validate that a customer is eligible for support? A. Priority Level B. Analyst's Discretion C. Support Entitlement D. Passport Advantage Answer: C

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1. Which type of DOORS user can create projects?
A. Edit DXL
B. Standard
C. Project Manager
D. Database Manager
Answer: D

2. Which statement is true about Private, Public, and Custom views?
A. All users have modify access to a Public view.
B. The Standard view can have custom access rights.
C. A view can only be made Private if the For Module check box is selected.
D. Access rights for a Custom view are inherited from the currently displayed view.
Answer: D

3. Which two module attributes can be used to generate a report about changes to the module? (Choose two.)
A. Created By
B. Created On
C. Last Modified By
D. Last Modified On
Answer: CD

4. According to the Standish Group, what percent of IT project failures result from poor requirements gathering, analysis, and management?
A. 30 to 40 percent
B. 40 to 50 percent
C. 50 to 60 percent
D. 60 to 70 percent
Answer: D

5. Which challenge faced by IT projects is most directly addressed with Requirements Management tools?
A. cost
B. time
C. scope
D. compliance
Answer: C

6. What is Requirements Management used for at the board level?
A. to develop tools
B. for project management
C. to develop a corporate vision
D. for portfolio and program management
Answer: C

7. Which type of requirement on the V-model focuses on design and implementation?
A. system
B. operational
C. component
D. stakeholder
Answer: C

8. When tracking development traceability along the V-model, what satisfies stakeholder requirements?
A. vision
B. system tests
C. acceptance tests
D. system requirements
Answer: D

9. What is NOT a characteristic of good requirements?
A. clear
B. correct
C. complete
D. ambiguous
Answer: D

10. What are three characteristics of a good requirements set? (Choose three.)
A. modular
B. sufficient
C. consistent
D. exhaustive
Answer: ABC

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000-377 Test 000-377, IBM WebSphere Application Server Net

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IBM 000-377 Exam - Cheat-Test.com Free 000-377 Sample Questions: 1. Which of the following is an option given in the First Steps application that runs automatically after installation? A. Start the server. B. Execute wsadmin. C. Configure resources. D. Run the Snoop servlet. Answer: A 2. Which one of the following can be used to instantiate resource adapter classes for establishing and maintaining resource connections? A. a data source B. connection factories C. connection pool settings D. a JMS activation specification Answer: B 3. global security is turned on for a federated cell using a file-based federated repository. The administrator created a new security domain called App1Domain using local operating system registry and mapping it to the application server. The administrator also created a new local operating system user ID App1Admin? Which one of the following is true when the new security domain is enabled to secure Application1? A. The administrator can access Application1. B. The administrator can disable Application1 security. C. App1Admin can disable Application1 security. D. App1Admin can access the administrative console. Answer: B 4. Aside from the administrative console and the addNode command, what other facilities does WebSphere Application Server provide for federating nodes into cells? A. wsadmin B. The administrative agent C. The Profile Management Tool (PMT) D. Rational Application Developer Assembly and Deploy Module Answer: C 5. When backing up WebSphere Application Server configuration and runtime settings, which of the following commands would be relevant? A. backupConfig -location location B. restoreConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name C. manageprofiles -backupProfile -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name D. wsadmin -backupConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name Answer: C 6. What can the system administrator do to distribute incoming HTTP traffic across a farm of Web servers? A. Enable server affinity for each HTTP server in the cluster B. Implement the Tivoli Access Manager as a load balancer C. Implement the caching proxy server component of the Edge Components D. Use the Load Balancer component of the Edge Components Answer: D 7. What is the sequence of components which would typically be involved in the flow of a request from a Web browser to a servlet? A. External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and EJB Container B. Load Balancer, Embedded HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and Web Container C. Edge Component, HTTP Server Plug-in, external HTTP Server, and Web Container D. External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in, embedded HTTP Server and Web Container Answer: D 8. How could an administrator manage multiple stand-alone application servers on different hosts in a network? By using: A. a job manager which administers multiple application server nodes through administrative agents. B. a deployment manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their node agents. C. a high availability manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their administrative agents. D. an administrative agent which administers multiple application server nodes through their administrative service. Answer: A 9. Which type of server is recommended to be placed in the demilitarized zone (DMZ)? A. Generic servers B. Application servers C. Managed HTTP servers D. Unmanaged HTTP servers Answer: D 10. What is the advantage of deploying more than one messaging engine and linking them together in a topology that has multiple interconnected service integration buses (SIBus)? A. Enable protocol transformation between buses. B. Improve the availability of the persistent storage. C. Spread messaging workload across multiple servers. D. Preserve message ordering through the messaging engines. Answer: C 11. Why does IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment utilize node groups to implement a distributed environment? To: A. segment multiple security domains within a WebSphere cell. B. define the logical grouping of application servers to scale horizontally or vertically. C. enable mixed nodes with different capabilities within the same cell for administration purposes. D. allow application servers having the same applications installed to be grouped logically for workload management. Answer: C 12. A system administrator wants to improve response time and system load of a Web application running in a clustered environment. What might the system administrator attempt to decrease the response time of the Web application? A. Configure dynamic caching B. Enable memory-to-memory replication C. Configure session replication to use a database. D. Ensure that all cluster members are in the same node group. Answer: A 13. A system administrator needs to modify the configuration of an enterprise application within a flexible management environment. The system administrator can make the modification using wsadmin scripts by connecting to which of the following components? A. Node agent B. Job manager C. Work manager D. Administrative agent E. Deployment manager Answer: BE 14. What would have to be configured in order to implement memory-to-memory HTTP Session persistence? A. Dynamic cache service and HTTP plug-in B. Synchronization service and embedded Web server C. Distributed environment settings in the web containers D. Fast Response Cache Accelerator (FRCA) and external Web server Answer: C 15. When configuring automated transaction peer recovery for recovering in-flight transactions from the transaction log, what is required from the file system? A. RAID disks must be used to host the transaction log B. Exclusive read only file locks and the ability to invalidate them C. File locking must be disabled for Network File System Version 4 (NFSv4) D. Lease-based exclusive locks on files Answer: D 16. What are the three possible replication types for the dynamic caching service? A. Client mode B. Server mode C. Not shared D. Push only E. Both push and pull F. Broadcast mode Answer: CDE 17. What is the Data Replication Service (DRS) used for? Please choose three from the following. A. Node agents B. Web servers C. Caching Proxy D. Dynamic cache replication E. HTTP session persistence and failover F. Stateful session EJB persistence and failover Answer: DEF 18. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between a flexible management topology and the network deployment cell? A. Flexible management can be an alternative to the network deployment cell model. B. Flexible management eliminates the need for node agents in a network deployment cell. C. The flexible management topology is a replacement for the network deployment cell. D. The flexible management job manager can perform all the tasks of the deployment manager. Answer: A 19. In order for a deployment manager to participate in a flexible management environment, which one of the following steps must be completed? A. Register directly with the job manager. B. Register with the node agent on the job managers host. C. Register with an administrative agent on the job managers host D. First register with a local administrative agent, and then register with the job manager. Answer: A 20. Which of the following items best gives a reason to perform an unattended installation of WebSphere Application Server? A. The installation for the particular target platform is being done for the first time. B. The installation for the particular target platform has been done before and will be repeated in the future. C. The installation for WebSphere Application Server would initially not be able to include administrative security. D. The installation for the particular target platform is expected to require a lot of adjustments to be done over several installation attempts. Answer: B

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A. Functional test.
B. Unit test.
C. System verification testing.
D. Static testing.
Answer: B

2. The inspection effort indicator is a proxy measure of how well the inspection process was:
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B. Implemented.
C. Tracked.
D. Timed.
Answer: A

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D. Sequence diagrams.
Answer: B

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C. Execution.
D. Maintenance.
Answer: C

5. Early defect removal practices such as inspections:
A. Eliminate the need to apply Quality Predictive Indicators.
B. Reduce overall time to market.
C. Reduce the need for static analysis.
D. Can only be used with the waterfall model.
Answer: A

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