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2011-10-15T02:38:00.000-07:00

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Related Exams:
N10-003 – Network+ Certification Exam
220-601 – CompTIA A+ Essentials (2006 Edition) Exam
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642-825 – ISCW – Implementing Secure Converged Wide Area Networks

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2011-08-05T03:50:00.000-07:00

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2011-07-16T06:39:00.000-07:00

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2011-04-09T11:36:00.000-07:00

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2011-02-19T05:19:00.000-08:00

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2011-01-18T00:49:00.000-08:00

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Related IBM Lotus Exams:

LOT-980 IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 Sys Admin Operating Fundamentals

LOT-981 IBM Lotus Notes 8.5 Building the Infrastructure

LOT-982 Administering IBM LotusQuickr8.1 Services for WebShperePortal

LOT-983 IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 Managing Servers and Users

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2011-01-15T00:18:00.000-08:00

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Related IBM Exams:

000-979 Power Systems with POWER7 and IBM i Technical Sales Skills - v1

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000-977 Power Systems with POWER7 Common Sales Skills - v1

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000-171 IBM BPM Blueprint: IBM WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.1, Development

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2010-10-21T07:16:00.000-07:00

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2010-09-29T11:09:00.001-07:00

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2010-09-29T11:08:00.001-07:00

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2010-06-27T19:06:00.000-07:00

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2010-04-17T09:45:00.000-07:00

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1. Which two statements describe the purpose of the technology prefix? (Choose two.)
A. Technology prefixes are configured on gateways to indicate to the gatekeeper whether they support voice or video.
B. Technology prefixes must always be configured on gateways.
C. Technology prefixes are used to identify different types or classes of gateways.
D. Technology prefixes are prepended to the destination address by the gateway.
E. Technology prefixes have to be unique on each gateway.
Answer: C, D

2. Which statement is true about only out-of-band signaling?
A. A signaling bit is robbed from each frame.
B. Signaling bits are sent in a special order in a dedicated signaling frame.
C. All signaling is directly associated with its corresponding voice frame.
D. All voice packets carry their own signaling.
Answer: B

3. Examine the example output.
hostname GW1
!
interface Ethernet 0/0
ip address 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0
h323-gateway voip interface
h323-gateway voip id GK1-zone1.abc.com abc.com ipaddr 172.16.2.2
h323-gateway voip h323-id GW1
h323-gateway voip bind srcaddr 172.16.2.1
!
dial-peer voice 1 voip
destination-pattern 1212.
session-target ras
!
dial-peer voice 2 pots
destination-pattern 2125551212
no register e164
!
end
Choose the command that will restore communication with gatekeeper functionality to this device.
A. h323-gateway voip h323-id GK1
B. gateway
C. h323-gateway voip bind srcaddr 172.16.2.2
D. h323-gateway voip GW1-zone2.abc.com abc.com ipaddr 172.16.2.1
Answer: B

4. Which two are types of Call Admission Control? (Choose two.)
A. local
B. QoS-based
C. resource-based
D. topology-based
E. gateway zone bandwidth
F. gatekeeper-controlled RSVP
Answer: A, C

5. Which option is true concerning the MGCP call agent?
A. acts only as a recorder of call details
B. provides only call signaling and call setup
C. manages all aspects of the call and voice stream
D. monitors the quality of each call after setup
Answer: B

6. Which statement best describes gatekeeper operation when the technology prefix is matched and the gatekeeper is using the technology prefix with hopoff?
A. The gatekeeper always forwards the call to the zone specified in the hopoff command.
B. The gatekeeper only forwards the call to the hopoff zone if the zone prefix does not match.
C. The gatekeeper attempts to forward the call to the hopoff zone, but if this fails, it will forward the call to the zone specified in the zone prefix command.
D. The gatekeeper attempts to forward the call to the zone specified in the zone prefix command first, but if this fails, it will forward the call to the zone specified in the hopoff command.
Answer: A

7. Using Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, what four steps are necessary to implement COR? (Choose four.)
A. Configure SRST.
B. Define COR labels.
C. Configure COR lists.
D. Assign COR list to ephone-DN.
E. Configure COR lists on voice ports.
F. Configure dial peers and assign COR lists.
Answer: B, C, D, F

8. At what point does the MGCP call agent release the setup of the call path to the residential gateways?
A. after the call agent has been notified that an event occurred at the source residential gateway
B. after the call agent has been notified of an event and has instructed the source residential gateway to create a connection
C. does not release call path setup
D. after the call agent has sent a connection request to both the source and destination and has relayed a modify-connection request to the source so that the source and destination can set up the call path
E. after the call agent has forwarded session description protocol information to the destination from the source and has sent a modify connection to the destination and a create-connection request to the source
Answer: D

9. Which two codes together make up the number that follows the E.164 recommendation numbering scheme? (Choose two.)
A. country code
B. subscriber code
C. national destination code
D. provider code
Answer: A, B

10. When using CUBE, which two statements describe how media flow-through differs from media flow-around? (Choose two.)
A. Media flow-around provides address hiding by terminating both signaling and RTP streams.
B. Media flow-through terminates the signaling channel and the RTP streams flow directly between endpoints.
C. Media flow-around and media flow-through function in a similar manner, but media flow-around supports NAT traversal.
D. Media flow-through terminates the RTP streams but allows signaling to flow directly between endpoints.
E. Media flow-around terminates the signaling stream and allows RTP streams to flow directly between endpoints.
F. Media flow-through provides address hiding by terminating both signaling and RTP streams.
Answer: E, F

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(000-001) Fund of Applying Maximo Enterprise Asset Mgmt Sol 09

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Free 000-001 Sample Questions:

1. A competitor in the IBM Maximo Asset Management (IMAM) domain claims that their product contains pre-built workflows and common tasks that span and integrate across asset applications.
What should a solution advisor do when a customer is considering such a solution?
A. Dispute the vendor's claims that these pre-built workflows even exist.
B. Inform the organization that workflow is an unimportant component in asset .
C. Inform the organization that all vendors have the same pre-built workflows incorporated in their products.
D. Inform the customer that if current business processes do not exactly match these workflows, customization is required.
Answer: D

2. What are two common reporting requirements? (Choose two.)
A. the database connectivity method
B. the number of users in the solution
C. the number of reports being installed
D. ability to send completed reports by e-mail
E. reporting output available in Microsoft Excel
Answer: DE

3. What is a rotating item?
A. A rotating item is an individual item that is defined with a common item number. An item is designated as rotating because one wants to be able to create individual asset records by using the information (Classification, Specification,and Item Assembly Structure) contained on the item record.
B. A rotating item is a set of items that are defined with a specific code. An item is designated as rotating because one does not want to be able to create individual asset records by using the information (Classification, Specification, and Item Assembly Structure) contained on the item record.
C. A rotating item is a set of kits that are defined with a specific description and GL. An item is designated as rotating because one has the single cost to manage prefers to be able to create individual asset records by using the information (Classification, Specification, and Item Assembly Structure) contained on the assembly record.
D. A rotating item is an individual item that is defined with a common item number and can be a spare part. An item is designated as rotating because one wants to be able to create multiple asset records by using the information (Classification, Specification, and Item Assembly Structure) contained on the item set records.
Answer: A

4. What will happen to associated preventive maintenance (PM) records when an asset is decommissioned?
A. There is no automatic method to change the PM(s) status to INACTIVE.
B. The PM(s) will become in INACTIVE if 'Change the Status of All Associated PM(s) to Inactive?' is checked while decommissioning the asset.
C. The only way to change the status of the PM(s) to INACTIVE is to remove the assets from the PM(s) and then change the status of the PM(s) to INACTIVE.
D. If the 'Change the Status of All Associated PM(s) to Inactive?' is not selected during decommissioning, the PM(s) status will remain ACTIVE; however, work order cannot be generated from the PM having a decommissioned asset.
Answer: B

5. Which application is installed with IBM Enterprise Asset Management for providing reporting capability?
A. Open Database Platform
B. External Report Integration
C. Business Objects/Crystal Reports
D. Business Intelligence Reporting Tool
Answer: D

6. What is a feature of the Integration Framework?
A. Allow bulk importing of XML or flat files.
B. Allow bulk importing from Excel spreadsheets.
C. Allow bulk importing from external/legacy system.
D. Allow bulk importing from one database platform to another.
Answer: A

7. A customer's plant maintenance manager invites a solution advisor to discuss Enterprise Asset Management in general and how it might help the maintenance group work more effectively and efficiently.
What should the solution advisor do in the first meeting with the plant maintenance manager?
A. Ask the plant maintenance manager about the company's history, competition, and market value.
B. Ask the plant maintenance manager about their background, education, and professional experience.
C. Ask the plant maintenance manager about current systems in use, issues with the system,and key areas where the manager wants to see improvements.
D. Ask the plant maintenance manager about the number of employees, union representation, and how IBM Maximo Asset Management can represent employees and their skill sets.
Answer: C

8. A company just hired a new plant maintenance manager, and they are concerned about the number of corrupt asset records in the present system. In future they want to prevent this from happening. When implementing the new solution, what is recommended?
A. All maintenance personnel have full access to all records.
B. All maintenance personnel have read-only access to all data.
C. Only a very limited number of personnel have full access to static data records, but all maintenance personnel are able to enter work order data.
D. Maintenance personnel should not be using the system, and should only write entries on printed work orders and hire input clerks to enter these into the system.
Answer: C

9. When discussing plant maintenance with plant maintenance managers, frequently the topic of using preventive maintenance (PM) comes up. If this is used extensively and the PM work orders are regularly completed, what is told by this about the operation?
A. It is likely that equipment will break down frequently.
B. It is likely that equipment will break down infrequently.
C. It shows that maintenance is performed on an as needed basis.
D. It shows that there are frequent crises when it comes to maintaining equipment.
Answer: B

10. Which two aspects of the client's environment will help determine sizing of the solution? (Choose two.)
A. the number of users
B. the number of locations
C. the number of types of hardware
D. the number of security protocols
E. the number of types of operating systems
Answer: AB

11. Which two internet browsers are supported with IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1? (Choose two.)
A. Opera
B. Netscape
C. Mozilla Firefox
D. Google Chrome
E. Microsoft Internet Explorer
Answer: CE

12. Which aspect of the client's environment restricts how an asset management tool can be deployed?
A. which database servers are in use
B. which types of hardware are in use
C. which operating systems are in use
D. which authentication and security protocols are in use
Answer: D

13. With which three other business initiatives does Enterprise Asset Management-a business paradigm-integrate strategic planning? (Choose three.)
A. sales
B. operations
C. maintenance
D. balance sheet
E. human resources
F. capital investment decision-making
Answer: BCF

14. Enterprise Asset Management packages offer a wide range of capabilities. Which three areas of capability are covered by IBM Maximo Asset Management solutions? (Choose three)
A. work orders
B. human resources
C. inventory control
D. preventive maintenance
E. facilities schedule management
F. customer relationship management
Answer: ACD

15. Which three benefits do Enterprise Asset Management solutions provide? (Choose three.)
A. Reduce asset life.
B. Increase productivity.
C. Increase risk and costs.
D. Improve return on assets.
E. Reduce total cost of ownership.
F. Minimize collection on warranty claims.
Answer: BDE

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000-025 Exam Preparation from Cheat-test.com include:

Comprehensive questions with complete details
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Questions updated on regular basis
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Free 000-025 Sample Questions:

1. A customer requires a large file server backup in the least time possible by using a storage area network (SAN) environment. Which component should be installed on the file server in order to achieve this?
A. Tivoli Management Console
B. Integrated Solution Console
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager SAN-Free
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Storage Area Network
Answer: D

2. With DB2 there are additional Archive Log possibilities. The Archive log space is used for recovery. Which process is started to clear this Archive Log area?
A. full copy Archlog
B. full database backup
C. no process must be started
D. duplicate copy of the Active Log
Answer: B

3. Which three logs does the recovery log consist of? (Choose three.)
A. Active log
B. Activity log
C. Archive log
D. Active log failover
E. Archive log mirror
F. Archive failover log
Answer: A, C, F

4. When a SnapMirror to Tape feature is used on an N-Series appliance, which type of backup is performed?
A. Image
B. Differential
C. Incremental
D. Progressive
Answer: A

5. When configuring a storage pool for the SnapLock feature, which value should the option Reclamationtype be set to?
A. 10
B. 100
C. No Value
D. SnapLock
Answer: D

6. In the client option file, which option is changed in order to connect to an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server?
A. TCPSport
B. HTTPSport
C. TCPClientaddress
D. TCPServeraddress
Answer: D

7. What are locally deleted Active Directory objects called?
A. casket objects
B. purged objects
C. graveyard objects
D. tombstone objects
Answer: D

8. Which command is issued for disabling automatic expiration process?
A. set retryperiod 0
B. setopt expinterval 0
C. setopt idletimeout 0
D. set summaryretention 0
Answer: B

9. Which command sets the activity log size to 30 MB?
A. set actlog 30
B. set actl size=30
C. set actlog 30 meg
D. set actlog 30 mgmtstyle=size
Answer: D

10. The Administration Center can be used for error checking. Which panel is reviewed for a global overview?
A. Tivoli Monitor
B. Health Monitor
C. Server Connection
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Health Center
Answer: B

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000-023 IBM dumps,000-023 study guide,000-023 exam questions,000-023 practice test,000-023 torrent,000-023 PDF rapidshare,000-023 testking vce

2009-09-23T06:41:00.000-07:00

Exam code: 000-023
Exam name: IBM Tivoli Support Provider Tools and Processes
Cheat-test.com Price: $119.00
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000-023 Downloadable, Printable Exams (in PDF format):
We are all well aware that a major problem in the IT industry is that there is a lack of quality study materials. Our 000-023 Preparation Exam Material provides you everything you will need to take a certification examination. Details are researched and produced by Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, logical and verified explanations for the answers. You may get questions from different web sites or books, but logic is the key.

000-023 Exam Preparation from Cheat-test.com include:

Comprehensive questions with complete details
Questions accompanied by exhibits
Verified Answers Researched by Industry Experts
Drag and Drop questions as experienced in the Actual Exams
Questions updated on regular basis
These questions and answers are backed by our GUARANTEE
Like actual certification exams our product is in multiple-choice questions (MCQs)

IBM 000-023 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 000-023 Sample Questions:

1. A support provider opens a PMR for a customer. Who is the owner of this issue?
A. customer
B. support provider
C. account manager
D. IBM Tivoli Support
Answer: D

2. What are three correct classifications when reporting a problem? (Choose three.)
A. Software
B. Hardware
C. ICN Number
D. Priority Level
E. Response Time
F. Driver and or Configuration
Answer: A, B, F

3. What are two examples of diagnostic Information? (Choose two.)
A. script
B. dumps
C. traces
D. file name
E. incident history
Answer: B, C

4. The ESR/SR tool is used to open, update and report on PMRs online. Whose responsibility is it to grant and deny access to the ESR/SR?
A. Primary Contact
B. IBM Tivoli Support
C. Passport Advantage
D. Site Technical Contact
Answer: D

5. Which information does the IBM Information Center provide?
A. How to access and download IBM software.
B. How to change a customer's Primary Contact information.
C. Task oriented How to instructions and reference material.
D. Updated information regarding PMRs you have opened with IBM Tivoli Support.
Answer: C

6. Which Maintenance Delivery Vehicles (MDVs) provides a cumulative, fully supported and formally tested software maintenance package of APAR fixes?
A. FITS
B. Test Fix
C. Fix Pack
D. Limited Availability Interim Fix
Answer: C

7. Based upon user feedback of the IBM Support Assistant tool, what increased resolution time have they observed?
A. 2%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 15%
Answer: C

8. What is the IBM Tivoli Support response goal for severity 1 PMRs?
A. within 1 hour
B. within 2 hours
C. within 30 minutes
D. within 90 minutes
Answer: B

9. Which item can be sent to a Support Provider using e-mail as a temporary solution?
A. upgrade
B. source code
C. new release
D. hotfix or test fix
Answer: D

10. Which is a way to validate that a customer is eligible for support?
A. Priority Level
B. Analyst's Discretion
C. Support Entitlement
D. Passport Advantage
Answer: C

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000-046 Free Dumps, IBM 000-046 study guide, 000-046 Exam Questions, 000-046 practice test, 000-046 PDF ebook, 000-046 vce torrent, 000-046 download

2009-08-12T05:53:00.000-07:00

IBM 000-046 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 000-046 Sample Questions:

1. Which type of DOORS user can create projects?
A. Edit DXL
B. Standard
C. Project Manager
D. Database Manager
Answer: D

2. Which statement is true about Private, Public, and Custom views?
A. All users have modify access to a Public view.
B. The Standard view can have custom access rights.
C. A view can only be made Private if the For Module check box is selected.
D. Access rights for a Custom view are inherited from the currently displayed view.
Answer: D

3. Which two module attributes can be used to generate a report about changes to the module? (Choose two.)
A. Created By
B. Created On
C. Last Modified By
D. Last Modified On
Answer: CD

4. According to the Standish Group, what percent of IT project failures result from poor requirements gathering, analysis, and management?
A. 30 to 40 percent
B. 40 to 50 percent
C. 50 to 60 percent
D. 60 to 70 percent
Answer: D

5. Which challenge faced by IT projects is most directly addressed with Requirements Management tools?
A. cost
B. time
C. scope
D. compliance
Answer: C

6. What is Requirements Management used for at the board level?
A. to develop tools
B. for project management
C. to develop a corporate vision
D. for portfolio and program management
Answer: C

7. Which type of requirement on the V-model focuses on design and implementation?
A. system
B. operational
C. component
D. stakeholder
Answer: C

8. When tracking development traceability along the V-model, what satisfies stakeholder requirements?
A. vision
B. system tests
C. acceptance tests
D. system requirements
Answer: D

9. What is NOT a characteristic of good requirements?
A. clear
B. correct
C. complete
D. ambiguous
Answer: D

10. What are three characteristics of a good requirements set? (Choose three.)
A. modular
B. sufficient
C. consistent
D. exhaustive
Answer: ABC

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000-377 Test 000-377, IBM WebSphere Application Server Net

2009-08-12T05:46:00.000-07:00

000-377 Free Dumps, IBM 000-377 study guide, 000-377 Best Exam Questions, 000-377 practice test

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000-377 Downloadable, Printable Exams (in PDF format):
We are all well aware that a major problem in the IT industry is that there is a lack of quality study materials. Our 000-377 Preparation Exam Material provides you everything you will need to take a certification examination. Details are researched and produced by Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, logical and verified explanations for the answers. You may get questions from different web sites or books, but logic is the key.

IBM 000-377 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 000-377 Sample Questions:

1. Which of the following is an option given in the First Steps application that runs automatically after installation?
A. Start the server.
B. Execute wsadmin.
C. Configure resources.
D. Run the Snoop servlet.
Answer: A

2. Which one of the following can be used to instantiate resource adapter classes for establishing and maintaining resource connections?
A. a data source
B. connection factories
C. connection pool settings
D. a JMS activation specification
Answer: B

3. global security is turned on for a federated cell using a file-based federated repository. The administrator created a new security domain called App1Domain using local operating system registry and mapping it to the application server. The administrator also created a new local operating system user ID App1Admin?
Which one of the following is true when the new security domain is enabled to secure Application1?
A. The administrator can access Application1.
B. The administrator can disable Application1 security.
C. App1Admin can disable Application1 security.
D. App1Admin can access the administrative console.
Answer: B

4. Aside from the administrative console and the addNode command, what other facilities does WebSphere Application Server provide for federating nodes into cells?
A. wsadmin
B. The administrative agent
C. The Profile Management Tool (PMT)
D. Rational Application Developer Assembly and Deploy Module
Answer: C

5. When backing up WebSphere Application Server configuration and runtime settings, which of the following commands would be relevant?
A. backupConfig -location location
B. restoreConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
C. manageprofiles -backupProfile -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
D. wsadmin -backupConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
Answer: C

6. What can the system administrator do to distribute incoming HTTP traffic across a farm of Web servers?
A. Enable server affinity for each HTTP server in the cluster
B. Implement the Tivoli Access Manager as a load balancer
C. Implement the caching proxy server component of the Edge Components
D. Use the Load Balancer component of the Edge Components
Answer: D

7. What is the sequence of components which would typically be involved in the flow of a request from a Web browser to a servlet?
A. External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and EJB Container
B. Load Balancer, Embedded HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and Web Container
C. Edge Component, HTTP Server Plug-in, external HTTP Server, and Web Container
D. External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in, embedded HTTP Server and Web Container
Answer: D

8. How could an administrator manage multiple stand-alone application servers on different hosts in a network?
By using:
A. a job manager which administers multiple application server nodes through administrative agents.
B. a deployment manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their node agents.
C. a high availability manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their administrative agents.
D. an administrative agent which administers multiple application server nodes through their administrative service.
Answer: A

9. Which type of server is recommended to be placed in the demilitarized zone (DMZ)?
A. Generic servers
B. Application servers
C. Managed HTTP servers
D. Unmanaged HTTP servers
Answer: D

10. What is the advantage of deploying more than one messaging engine and linking them together in a topology that has multiple interconnected service integration buses (SIBus)?
A. Enable protocol transformation between buses.
B. Improve the availability of the persistent storage.
C. Spread messaging workload across multiple servers.
D. Preserve message ordering through the messaging engines.
Answer: C

11. Why does IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment utilize node groups to implement a distributed environment? To:
A. segment multiple security domains within a WebSphere cell.
B. define the logical grouping of application servers to scale horizontally or vertically.
C. enable mixed nodes with different capabilities within the same cell for administration purposes.
D. allow application servers having the same applications installed to be grouped logically for workload management.
Answer: C

12. A system administrator wants to improve response time and system load of a Web application running in a clustered environment.
What might the system administrator attempt to decrease the response time of the Web application?
A. Configure dynamic caching
B. Enable memory-to-memory replication
C. Configure session replication to use a database.
D. Ensure that all cluster members are in the same node group.
Answer: A

13. A system administrator needs to modify the configuration of an enterprise application within a flexible management environment. The system administrator can make the modification using wsadmin scripts by connecting to which of the following components?
A. Node agent
B. Job manager
C. Work manager
D. Administrative agent
E. Deployment manager
Answer: BE

14. What would have to be configured in order to implement memory-to-memory HTTP Session persistence?
A. Dynamic cache service and HTTP plug-in
B. Synchronization service and embedded Web server
C. Distributed environment settings in the web containers
D. Fast Response Cache Accelerator (FRCA) and external Web server
Answer: C

15. When configuring automated transaction peer recovery for recovering in-flight transactions from the transaction log, what is required from the file system?
A. RAID disks must be used to host the transaction log
B. Exclusive read only file locks and the ability to invalidate them
C. File locking must be disabled for Network File System Version 4 (NFSv4)
D. Lease-based exclusive locks on files
Answer: D

16. What are the three possible replication types for the dynamic caching service?
A. Client mode
B. Server mode
C. Not shared
D. Push only
E. Both push and pull
F. Broadcast mode
Answer: CDE

17. What is the Data Replication Service (DRS) used for? Please choose three from the following.
A. Node agents
B. Web servers
C. Caching Proxy
D. Dynamic cache replication
E. HTTP session persistence and failover
F. Stateful session EJB persistence and failover
Answer: DEF

18. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between a flexible management topology and the network deployment cell?
A. Flexible management can be an alternative to the network deployment cell model.
B. Flexible management eliminates the need for node agents in a network deployment cell.
C. The flexible management topology is a replacement for the network deployment cell.
D. The flexible management job manager can perform all the tasks of the deployment manager.
Answer: A

19. In order for a deployment manager to participate in a flexible management environment, which one of the following steps must be completed?
A. Register directly with the job manager.
B. Register with the node agent on the job managers host.
C. Register with an administrative agent on the job managers host
D. First register with a local administrative agent, and then register with the job manager.
Answer: A

20. Which of the following items best gives a reason to perform an unattended installation of WebSphere Application Server?
A. The installation for the particular target platform is being done for the first time.
B. The installation for the particular target platform has been done before and will be repeated in the future.
C. The installation for WebSphere Application Server would initially not be able to include administrative security.
D. The installation for the particular target platform is expected to require a lot of adjustments to be done over several installation attempts.
Answer: B

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2009-08-12T05:42:00.000-07:00

IBM 000-370 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 000-370 Sample Questions:

1. The following type of testing requires the test environment most closely resembling the environment at the customer site:
A. Functional test.
B. Unit test.
C. System verification testing.
D. Static testing.
Answer: B

2. The inspection effort indicator is a proxy measure of how well the inspection process was:
A. Prepared.
B. Implemented.
C. Tracked.
D. Timed.
Answer: A

3. Which of the following enables developers to achieve modular designs?
A. Use case diagrams.
B. Analysis and modeling.
C. Componetization.
D. Sequence diagrams.
Answer: B

4. Test reuse delivers most of its return on investment during which phase?
A. Design
B. Implementation.
C. Execution.
D. Maintenance.
Answer: C

5. Early defect removal practices such as inspections:
A. Eliminate the need to apply Quality Predictive Indicators.
B. Reduce overall time to market.
C. Reduce the need for static analysis.
D. Can only be used with the waterfall model.
Answer: A

000-330 Power Systems Technical Support for AIX and Linux

2009-07-19T12:38:00.000-07:00

1.The customer has a 7014B42, a 7014T00, and a 7014T42, each with available space. Which rack/racks support(s) the installation of the BladeCenter H?
A.7014B42
B.7014T00
C.7014T42
D.7014B42, and 7014T42
Answer: A

2.Which of the following supports a Linuxbased HA solution?
A.SE Linux
B.GPFS for Linux
C.Cluster Systems Manager (CSM)
D.PowerHA Cluster Manager for AIX and Linux
Answer: D

3.How can a company that is concerned about energy costs in the datacenter use Power servers to better manage energy usage?
A.Set energy management parameters with AEM
B.Set energy management parameters with IVM
C.Set energy management parameters within AIX
D.Set energy management parameters with the HMC
Answer: A

4.A customer is consolidating LAMP on Power. They would like to also consolidate Linux x86 OLTP applications. Which of the following should be discussed?
A.Requires PowerVM Lx86
B.Requires AIX 5.3 or later.
C.Native port is recommended
D.Enabled with the AIX Linux Toolkit
Answer: C

5.A large customer has many POWER4 servers that have been sized for their peak workload but are under utilized most of the time. They are at the end of their lease and want to purchase POWER6 servers. Which PowerVM technology will maximize their server utilization?
A.Workload Partitions
B.Partition Load Manager
C.Shared Processor Pools
D.Live Partition Mobility
Answer: C

6.Which of the following is a competitive advantage of IBM PowerVM compared to HP Integrity Virtual Machines (IVM)?
A.PowerVM provides the capability to support shared CPU, memory and I/O resources.
B.PowerVM Editions are supported on Power systems from low to highend servers and blade servers.
C.AIX and Linux interface directly with the hardware and the hardware ensures isolation is maintained.
D.Processing resources can be dynamically allocated and shared between logical partitions with PowerVM.
Answer: C

7.Which of the following does IBM Fix Central provide to customers?
A.Customer hotline for immediate dispatch of service personnel for critical issues.
B.Designated local service center for each customer location with a maintenance contract.
C.Subscription based onsite service agreement for regularly scheduled system maintenance.
D.Web site access to PTFs and updates for system software, hardware, and operating systems.
Answer: D

8.A mid market customer wants to compare Power Systems performance to HP PARISC performance from a complete systems perspective. Which performance metric should be used?
A.RPE2
B.SWAP
C.rPerf
D.SPECint 2006
Answer: A

9.How many network cards can be added to the JS12 and JS22 Blades?
A.JS12 = 1, JS22 = 1
B.JS12 = 2, JS22 = 2
C.JS12 = 1, JS22 = 2
D.JS12 = 2, JS22 = 1
Answer: B

10.Which of the following options for PowerHA Cluster Manager can help simplify implementation and configuration in a DB2 and WebSphere environment?
A.Smart Assist
B.Insight Utility
C.Virtual Image Manager
D.Cluster Systems Management
Answer: A

11.A customer has an 8core POWER6 570 with 4 active processors. They have dedicated partitions. They have occasional need for additional CPU capacity. They do not want permanent activations and want to have monthly post billing for usage. What type of CoD best meets their requirements?
A.Trial CoD allows short term processor and memory activations.
B.Utility CoD autonomically provides additional processor performance on a temporary basis.
C.On/Off CoD enables processors to be temporarily activated in fullday increments as needed.
D.Capacity Upgrade on Demand (CUoD) allows you to purchase additional processor capacity and dynamically activate it when needed.
Answer: C

12.Which of the following is the appropriate disk configuration for an application that requires faster writes over availability?
A.RAID 0
B.RAID 1
C.RAID 5
D.RAID 6
Answer: A

13.Which IBM technical resource provides guideance, installation and tmplementation examples?
A.IBM InfoCenter
B.IBM Sales Manual
C.IBM Installation Guides
D.IBM Technical Sales Library
Answer: A

14.Which of the following features of Active Energy Manager help customers save energy costs?
A.Power capping
B.Fan speed management
C.Active power leveling
D.Power regulator management
Answer: A

15.Which of the following correctly describes Utility Capacity on Demand?
A.Additional processors can be assigned to any partition and are billed to the customer as units of 1 day.
B.Additional processors can be assigned to any partition and are billed to the customer as units of 1 minute.
C.Additional processors are assigned to the shared processor pool and are billed to the customer as units of 1 day.
D.Additional processors are assigned to the shared processor pool and are billed to the customer as units of 1 minute.
Answer: D

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IBM 000-180 Practice Test, 000-180 Best Exam Questions, 000-180 Certification

2009-07-19T12:36:00.000-07:00

000-180 p5 and pSeries Enterprise Technical Support AIX 5L V5.3

IBM 000-180 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 000-180 Sample Questions:

1. A customer has several AS/400 servers in their IT infrastructure running V5R2 that they wish to consolidate. The customer wants to simplify their environment and install i5/OS on a p5 590 with 16 1.65GHz processors and 20 i5/OS partitions. The customer plans to use the Advanced Power Virtualization to share their storage, processors, and memory. What considerations and limitations should be reviewed with the customer before the purchase?
A. Resources cannot be shared with an i5 partition when it is put on a pSeries. The i5 partition needs its own 9411-100 tower because of IOP. V5R3 OS or later is required. There is a maximum of two partitions in a 590.
B. Resources cannot be shared between partitions when i5/OS is put on a pSeries. The i5 partition needs its own 9411-100 tower because of IOP. i5/OS can be at V5R2 or a V5R3. Currently only one i5 partition is allowed.
C. V5R3 is required for the i5 partitions. Virtual IO Server is not supported for the i5/OS partitions to share storage. Up to 10 i5 partitions per processor are allowed (a maximum of two processors for up to 20 partitions).
D. Processor and memory resources can be shared between AIX 5L, Linux and i5/os partitions. i5/OS needs to be at V5R3, and Virtual IO Server is not supported for the i5/OS partition to share storage. On a 1.65 GHz POWER5 p5 590 there is a maximum of one partition.
Answer: C

2. A customer wants to use Virtual SCSI disks to boot multiple operating systems from the same disk. How will the volumes appear in the Virtual IO Server and how will the logical volumes appear in the partition?
A. The Virtual SCSI disks are defined as logical volumes in the Virtual IO Server. The logical volumes appear as real devices (hdisks) in the client partitions.
B. The Virtual IO adapters are connected to a virtual host bridge. On the Virtual IO Server they are vdisks, on the client partition, the exported disks are visible as virtual disks.
C. The Virtual SCSI disks are represented in the ODM as a bus device whose parent is sysplanar0. Logical volumes will be assigned to the Virtual IO Server and virtual disks, vdisks, in the client partition.
D. The Virtual IO adapters are represented as adapter devices with the virtual host bridge as their parent. On the Virtual IO Server they are vdisks attached to vscsi, on the client partition the exported disks are visible as virtual disks.
Answer: A

3. A customer has purchased a p5 590 with 16 CPUs. To run Simultaneous Multi-Threading (SMT) with a 4-way virtual processor partition with 2.0 processing units of entitlement, how many logical CPUs will be allocated?
A. 8-way logical CPU partition, where each logical CPU has the power of 25% of a logical processor
B. 4-way logical CPU partition, where each logical CPU has the power of 50% of a physical processor
C. 8-way logical CPU partition, where each logical CPU has the power of 25% of a physical processor
D. 16-way logical CPU partition, where each logical CPU has the power of 25% of a physical processor
Answer: C

4. A customer wants to buy a new p5 570 running AIX 5.3. The applications require 4 processors and 8GB of memory. There is a requirement to have a Virtual IO Server. What is the smallest p5 570 that should be sold to this customer?
A. 4 processors 8GB of memory
B. 5 processors 8GB of memory
C. 4 processors 10GB of memory
D. 5 processors 10GB of memory
Answer: D

5. A customer has just installed a p5 595 with four uncapped LPARs in a shared processor pool. The system and profile settings are still in their default states. One of the LPARs has an application that is consuming all of the available shared processor resources. Users of this application are complaining about response time. Which of the following changes to the slow LPAR would improve response time?
A. Enable SMT
B. Reduce the weight
C. Renice the process
D. Increase the weight
Answer: D

6. A customer has restored their mksysb. They notice that the external volume groups cannot be seen. What should be done to access the volume groups? A. Run importvg command
B. Run synclvodm command
C. Recreate volume groups
D. Update /etc/filesystems
Answer: A

7. A customer is purchasing a p5 595 as part of a large server consolidation. They are planning on using micropartitioning and Virtual IO to consolidate small machines. They used the rPerf numbers for AIX 5.3 to size their solutions. They discovered that their application is not yet certified on AIX 5.3, so they will have to use AIX 5.2. What changes should be made to their configuration?
A. Increase memory
B. Add more adapters
C. Increase both processors and adapters
D. Increase the number of processors by 20 - 30%
Answer: C

8. A customer is moving their application to a p5 590 and at the same time moving to a new version of the application. The customer knows only about the resource requirements of the old version. Which of the following is the best method to migrate their application to POWER5?
A. Add CPU and memory COD so they have room to grow if required
B. Make the server configuration twice as large as the current requirement
C. Configure the server for the current capacity requirements
D. Make the server configuration a little larger than the current capacity requirements
Answer: A

9. A large customer is consolidating their pSeries systems onto a p5 590. They will have a requirement for a single device (disk, lun) to have multiple paths through different adapters in a single LPAR. The primary applications were written for AIX 5.2. Which of the following would be the recommended solution to satisfy this requirement?
A. Assign the adapters to a Virtual IO partition
B. Use the MPIO function included in AIX 5.2
C. Migrate the application to AIX 5.3 and use the MPIO function
D. Set up two Virtual IO partitions and attach both partitions to the device
Answer: B

10. A customer has a requirement for an LPAR in their p5 595 to run SUSE Linux. They also require an adapter that is not currently supported in Linux. Which of the following would be the best solution to recommend?
A. Assign the adapter to an IO Hosting partition
B. Use AIX 5L affinity to move the application from SUSE to AIX
C. Use AIX 5.3 drivers to install the adapter in the Linux LPAR
D. Assign the adapter to an AIX 5.3 partition running Linux Affinity
Answer: A

11. A customer has seven days of vmstat data on four p5 590 production LPARs of four processors each. The data shows that all four LPARs have periodic utilizations of 90-95% lasting several minutes in duration. However, the average utilizations of the four LPARs were between 15-30%. The vmstat data shows that the peak utilizations of each LPAR do not occur at the same time. Which of the following should be set up?
A. A shared pool with four capped LPARs
B. A shared pool with four uncapped LPARs
C. Four dedicated LPARs and use DLPAR to manage resources effectively
D. The server in SMP mode and use WLM to manage resources effectively
Answer: B

12. A customer has seven days of vmstat data on a p5 590. The server has a total of four test/dev LPARs and 4 production LPARs of one processor each. On the four test/dev LPARs, the data shows 90-95% peak utilizations with a duration of from 5 to 10 minutes. The average utilizations of all LPARs were between 15-30%. All of the applications have different times when they peak. What is the best configuration to fully utilize the processor resource?
A. Set up the server in SMP mode and use WLM to manage resources effectively
B. Set up eight dedicated LPARs and use DLPAR to manage resources effectively
C. Set up a shared pool with eight capped LPARs including production and test/dev
D. Set up a shared pool with eight uncapped LPARs with priority weight to Production
Answer: D

13. A customer is purchasing a p5 590 which was configured with 60 Amp line cords. They have just indicated that their large datacenter is already wired for 100 Amp power circuits in the location where the server will be installed. What would be the recommended action?
A. Use the 60 Amp line cords
B. Change the 100 Amp connector to a 60 Amp circuit
C. Submit an RPQ to order the p5 590 with 100 Amp power cords
D. Change the configuration and order the p5 590 with the 100 Amp power cords
Answer: D

14. A customer is purchasing a 64-way p5 595. They have determined the location for the server is in a datacenter which does not have a raised floor. Which of the following would best meet the server requirements?
A. The server must be installed into a location with a raised floor for optimum system cooling and cable management.
B. The server should be purchased as a p5 590 and then upgraded to a p5 595. This will eliminate the need for a raised floor environment.
C. The server should be purchased as 32-way p5 595 and then upgraded to a 64-way. This will eliminate the need for a raised floor environment.
D. The server can be installed into a location without a raised floor if an RPQ is obtained. It is a strong IBM recommendation for a raised floor, not a requirement.
Answer: A

15. A customer has plans to deploy a large database solution. Their primary requirement is minimal user access downtime. They are comparing a single server implementation with a two server deployment. What solution would they use to avoid downtime for OS software maintenance?
A. Apply OS updates once a year
B. Utilize a GPFS cluster solution
C. Implement a two server deployment with HACMP
D. Install a single server implementation with HACMP failover to a second LPAR
Answer: C

IBM 000-093 study guide, 000-093 free practice test

2009-07-14T09:39:00.000-07:00

IBM 000-093 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 000-093 Sample Questions:

1.A manager interacts with an expense application via a human task. What action is appropriate to take if an obscure exception occurs when the manager enters a response and completes the task?
A.Edit the business data from Failed Event Manager and resubmit the failed event.
B.Resubmit the failed event with trace using Failed Event Manager for further troubleshooting.
C.Delete the failed event from Failed Event Manager, then stop and restart the TaskContainer.
D.Query the failed event using Failed Event Manager, then send the information to the developer.
Answer: B

2.The SystemOut.log indicates that the installation of an enterprise application failed. If the application contains WebSphere Adapter artifacts, what must be done before attempting to reinstall?
A.Remove any SIBus destinations or JCA activation specifications created prior to the failure.
B.Remove the Event Archive table created prior to the failure.
C.Create new Endpoint Listener to replace the one existed prior to the failure.
D.Create necessary SIBus destinations and JCA activation specifications manually.
Answer: A

3.Creation of a new profile failed with following error: Wait until the current creation or deletion operation is complete before continuing. In order to proceed with new profile creation, what must the administrator do next?
A.Stop the server, then restart the Profile Wizard.
B.Terminate any running javaw.exe process.
C.Make sure to enter a unique profile name from the wizard.
D.Delete profileRegistry.xml_LOCK file to release the lock.
Answer: D

4.An event failure occurred due to wrong date format which was sent from component A to component B. What will the Failed Event Manager allow an administrator to do?
A.Edit the date value and resubmit
B.Create a human task to notify the event originator
C.Bypass component B
D.Reroute the message
Answer: A

5.When using WebSphere Process Server V6.0.1, the installation of a business process that was generated for WebSphere Process Server V6.0.0 throws UnexpectedFailureException exception. Which of the following must the administrator do next?
A.Regenerate business process code in V6.0.1 and reinstall.
B.Run serviceDeploy tool to resolve this problem.
C.Make sure that Business Process Container has been installed.
D.Rename the module containing the business process different from the previous version.
Answer: A

6.The TaskContainer application failed to start due to missing SchedulerCalendars application. Which of the following tasks must the administrator complete to correct the situation?
A.Reinstall Human Task Container which will reinstall the SchedulerCalendars application.
B.Manually install the SchedulerCalendars application, which is available in \installableApps directory.
C.Reconfigure the human task container to use Application Scheduler instead.
D.Running bpeconfig.jacl will make SchedulerCalendars application accessible from TaskContainer application.
Answer: B

7.The installation of a business integration application fails. The server log displays a message of the form: ... BPED0202I: Validated process model 'OrderProcess' unsuccessfully: 0 information, 2 warnings, 1 error. What should the administrator do to complete the application installation?
A.Turn detailed tracing on and install again to capture details on the installation failure.
B.Update the validFrom value for the OrderProcess component and reinstall.
C.Return the application to developer to fix errors in OrderProcess.
D.Return the application to developer to rebuild staging projects.
Answer: C

8.During the execution of a business process instance, which of the following events CANNOT be seen in the trace log if the business process container trace level is set to all=enabled?
A.A new process instance getting created
B.An activity instance getting created
C.An event message delivery
D.A staff query result
Answer: D

9.The log.txt contains INSTCONFPARTIALSUCCESS. In order to resolve the incomplete product installation, an administrator must do which two of the following?
A.Run installver_wbi command to install missing files through the tool.
B.Run the Installation Verification Test to detect if the error can be ignored.
C.Verify the installed files against the bill of materials using installver_wbi command.
D.Rename vpd.properties file, then rerun the installer.
E.Check to see if other log files identify the errors.
Answer: C, E

10.A longrunning business process appears to have stopped due to repeated reply message delivery failures. Which of the following is the appropriate action for an administrator to take?
A.Resend the response message through SIBus mediation layer.
B.Resubmit the message using the Failed Event Manager with trace on.
C.Restart the process instance through BPC Explorer.
D.Set the continueOnError attribute to true from Administrative Console.
Answer: B

11.With tracing enabled for the staff support service, the following message indicates a problem exists reading which file? javax.xml.transform.TransformerException: org.xml.sax.SAXParseException: Element type "xsl:template" must be followed by either attribute specifications, ">" or "/>"
A.actionSet.xsl
B.collectionTab.xsl
C.EverybodyTransformation.xsl
D.LDAPTransformation.xsl
Answer: D

12.In which of the following topologies can the JDBC WebSphere Adapter be deployed to WebSphere Process Server?
A.As a standalone RAR
B.As part of an integration application
C.As part of an adapter application
D.As either a standalone RAR or part of an integration application
Answer: B

13.An administrator plans to distribute an Service Component Architecture (SCA) module that contains a business process. Which of the following conditions must be met for successful distribution into a clustered environment?
A.In the cluster, one server must be running and the business process container must be configured on each server.
B.In the cluster, each server must be running and the business process container must be configured on one server.
C.In the cluster, each server must be running.
D.In the cluster, the business process container must be installed and configured on one server.
Answer: A

14.An application has been installed with the following JMS binding: Connection JNDI Lookup Name is "jms/myLookupName". Which of the following resources needs to be established to support this binding?
A.JMS activation specification
B.JMS topic
C.JMS topic connection factory
D.JMS queue connection factory
Answer: A

15.It has been determined that business process instance data must be deleted via Business Process Container Explorer. What level of authorization will allow the deletion of process instances that are either finished or terminated?
A.Originator
B.Administrator
C.Owner
D.Editor
Answer: B

16.It has been determined that a process instance must be terminated. Compensation has been defined for the process model. What will be the effect if the administrator selects Terminate from the Business Process Choreographer Explorer?
A.The process instance is stopped and compensation processing is started.
B.The process instance is stopped and compensation processing is not started.
C.The process instance is stopped immediately while waiting for any outstanding activities or tasks to complete.
D.Nothing. Process instances with compensation cannot be terminated.
Answer: A

17.Which option should be specified when installing an application containing Web services using the wsadmin command?
A.deployws
B.wsdeploy
C.configws
D.usedefaultbindings
Answer: A

18.An application has been configured and installed with two JNDI lookup names, one for replies and the other for lookups. What resources must be configured by the administrator to support this configuration?
A.Two JMS activation specifications
B.Two JMS queues
C.Two JMS queue connection factories
D.Two JMS connection factories
Answer: B

19.An administrator unsuccessfully attempted to deploy an enterprise application that contained a business process model. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the failed deployment?
A.The process template is in a stopped status.
B.The Business Process Choreographer database is not accessible.
C.A version of process template already exists.
D.An enterprise application already has a valid process template.
Answer: B

20.In which case is the Human Task Container installed but not yet configured?
A.When the bpeconfig.jacl script has just been run
B.When the sibwsInstall.jacl script has just been run
C.When the Human Task Container has just been installed via the Administrative console "Human Task Container Installation wizard"
D.When the base installation of WebSphere Process Server has just been completed
Answer: C

21.In order to support the business rules manager in a clustered WebSphere Process Server configuration, which of the following configuration changes must the administrator make?
A.Install and configure the business rules manager on each server in the cluster.
B.Install and configure the business rules manager on a single server in the cluster.
C.Configure a profile for the business rules manager.
D.Augment the Deployment Manager profile with the business rules manager configuration.
Answer: B

22.An administrator wants two installations, a WebSphere Application Server V5.1 and a WebSphere Process Server V6.0, to coexist on the same server. What steps must the administrator take to allow the products to coexist?
A.Install WebSphere Process Server first and then make administrative changes to prevent port conflicts
so that both products can coexist.
B.Once the WebSphere Process Server installation detects the installation, select the coexistence option
to configure ports and resources to allow for coexistence.
C.Confirm that WebSphere Application Server has Fix Pack 2 installed to support compatible embedded messaging.
D.The two products cannot coexist on the same machine.
Answer: B

23.An enterprise has implemented an LDAP schema that uses different object classes and attributes than the WebSphere Process Server defaults. Which file would need modification to map staff verbs to LDAP queries?
A.Verb set file
B.LDAP transformation file
C.User registry transformation file
D.Web server plugin configuration file
Answer: B

24.For a clustered Business Process Choreographer setup, what needs to be considered when using Cloudscape for the business process container database?
A.Each business process container must connect to the database using the embedded version of Cloudscape.
B.Each business process container must connect to the database using the Cloudscape Network Server.
C.The deployment manager must connect to the database using the Cloudscape Network Server.
D.Cloudscape is not supported for a clustered Business Process Choreographer setup.
Answer: D

25.What must an administrator do to ensure that the Business Process Container is running?
A.Use the administrative console or run a JACL script to confirm the Business Process Container is pointing to the appropriate databases.
B.Select the enable option via the administrative console and ensure the console reports the Business Process Container is successfully enabled.
C.Install and configure the Business Process Container via JACL scripts or the administrative console as it is not installed by default.
D.No specific validation is necessary as it is installed by default with WebSphere Process Server but must be configured via a configuration JACL script.
Answer: C

26.An administrator has attempted to federate a WebSphere Process Server node to a deployment manager, but the federation of the node fails. Which two of the following would prevent successful federation of the node?
A.The deployment manager is configured to use SOAP as the JMX connector type.
B.Security has been disabled on the deployment manager node.
C.The deployment manager is not running.
D.The deployment manager is configured to use remote method invocation (RMI)as the JMX connector type.
E.The deployment manager is a WebSphere Process Server profile.
Answer: C, D

27.To prepare to use the Business Process Choreographer in a clustered environment, what database considerations must be made when planning the installation?
A.For a Cloudscape database, configuration must be done so that cluster members can access the data in a distributed environment.
B.A valid installation of DB2, Oracle, Informix or SQL Server must be made available so that the Business Process Choreographer can be configured to it during configuration.
C.The database that the Business Process Choreographer will use must be on the same machine as the Network Deployment installation due to current product restrictions.
D.The BPCDB.JACL script must be run to create the appropriate databases for the Business Process Choreographer prior to performing the installation so that the installation can successfully complete.
Answer: B

28.In order for the LDAP Plugin Staff Provider to anonymously log into the LDAP server, which of the following properties of the LDAP plugin need NOT be configured?
A.AuthenticationAlias
B.AuthenticationType
C.ContextFactory
D.ProviderURL
Answer: A

29.Monitoring of business process events can be enabled by performing which of the following actions?
A.Installing and configuring the CEI logging feature in WebSphere Process Server.
B.Installing and configuring the CEI logging feature in WebSphere Application Server.
C.Enabling CEI logging within the Business Process container.
D.Configuring logging parameters within the jlog.properties file for the WebSphere Process Server installation.
Answer: C

30.Which of the following is true about the Business Rules Manager installation and configuration?
A.It is installed with the default installation of WebSphere Process Server and must be configured after installation.
B.It is a separate component of WebSphere Process Server that must be installed and configured prior to being used.
C.It uses a database that can not be shared in nodes across a cluster without additional configuration.
D.It is a feature of WebSphere Application Server that can be enabled within WebSphere Process Server
Answer: B

000-076 IBM Exam Questions

2009-07-14T09:37:00.000-07:00

IBM 000-076 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 000-076 Sample Questions:

1. What IBM technology makes it easier for a customer to quickly locate and identify a failed server component?
A. Memory Mirroring
B. Predictive Failure Analysis
C. Processor Clockspeed
D. Light Path Diagnostics
Answer: D

2. Which of the following Cool Blue technologies will help energy consumption budgeting of System x servers based upon current actual consumption?
A. IBM Standalone Solutions Configuration Tool (SSCT)
B. IBM Active Energy Manager
C. Rear Door Heat eXchanger
D. IBM Power Configurator
Answer: B

3. What IBM pre-sales guidance resource would you use to make sure the Systems x hardware and application software are appropriately matched up?
A. xREF Sheets
B. Standalone Solutions Configuration Tool (SSCT)
C. IBM Sizing Guides
D. IBM ServerProven
Answer: C

4. Which IBM resource is a Web-based data repository for tested and supported hardware, applications, and middleware for System x and BladeCenter?
A. IBM Sizing Guides
B. Configuration & Options Guide COG
C. Standalone Solutions Configuration Tool (SSCT)
D. IBM ServerProven
Answer: D

5. A customer is concerned about the high energy cost associated with their data center. Specifically, their concern focuses on the cooling cost of many hundreds of servers. You have a meeting with the CIO and CFO to propose a solution. How would you prepare yourself for the meeting?
A. Since their capacities and usage models vary, ask the customer to turn off some of the servers during off-peak and low demand time.
B. Investigate their expansion plans and suggest to the customer the removal of some of their servers to another location and retirement of the older servers.
C. Contact the CFO to find out the targeted energy savings of the company and propose to the customer the purchase of a more efficient cooling system.
D. Contact the CIO for a list of servers and type/model numbers. Complete a proposal outlining the savings on energy cost by deploying an IBM BladeCenter solution and total cost of ownership and return on investment.
Answer: D

6. CIOs and their staff have very little experience architecting or designing solutions to support unknown workloads. As executives focus on compliance issues, more systems must be architected to align with emerging or poorly defined requirements. If the customer prefers an integrated solution physically consolidated in a scalable, single framework that can connect to an enterprise class storage area network, what solution would you recommend?
A. Multiple 1U and 2U servers equipped with FC HBAs to connect to the enterprise SAN
B. Single 3U/4U servers expandable to 32-way equipped with FC HBAs to connect to the enterprise SAN
C. BladeCenter, expandable to 14 blades equipped with FC HBAs, and redundant 20-port FC SAN Switch modules to connect to enterprise SAN
D. IBM 1350 Cluster equipped with FC HBAs to connect to enterprise SAN
Answer: C

7. The CIO of a research and technology company recently sent an email outlining his organization's Information Technology plans for the next 12 to 18 months. He asked for proposals that satisfied the following requirements:
--Recommend an Opteron AMD server capable of running as a 3-way but can be upgraded to a 4-way server.
--Recommend a four (4) way Intel Dual core 3.5GHz Sever capable of being upgraded to a 16 way server. What servers would you propose?
A. IBM x3755 and IBM x3850
B. IBM x3650 and IBM LS41 Blade
C. IBM x3655 and IBM x3650
D. IBM x3755 and IBM x3950
Answer: D

8. The IBM Systems & Technology value proposition is built on:
A. Realize Innovation, Manage Growth Complexity and Risk, Go Green and Save
B. Collaboration, Virtualization, and Ecosystem
C. Innovation, Collaboration, and On-Demand
D. Openness, On-Demand, and Green
Answer: A

9. The Virtualization Manager manages physical and virtual machines through a single console. Which vendor offers this product to its customer at no additional charge?
A. HP
B. Unisys
C. DELL
D. IBM
Answer: D

10. The customer asks for a scalable SQL server solution. What advantages supports the choice of the System x3950?
A. More processing 'head room' for a SQL infrastructure using eXpand on Demand
B. A more affordable platform choice than HP Itanium based server
C. IBM Services to install and support the solution
D. All of the above
Answer: D

11. What's the strongest differentiator between 2U servers offered by IBM, HP, and Dell?
A. DIMM slots
B. hot swappable fans
C. hot swappable hard drives
D. none of the above
Answer: A

12. Which of the following listed diagnostics products provides easy notification and identification of a failed component, even if the power is off?
A. Insight manager
B. PowerPath
C. LightPath Diagnostics
D. Sun Server Diagnostic
Answer: C
13. A sales specialist is presented with a very large, complex opportunity. The customer is in the process of identifying business requirements. Which of the following tasks is most important to position IBM as the leader to capture this opportunity?
A. Call the IBM Client Representative and ask the rep to influence the company's executives.
B. Develop a strategy to better understand and possibly influence the customer's success criteria.
C. Using IBM's opportunity management system, request a technical team be formed to design a solution.
D. Nominate the customer for a funded IBM Server Consolidation study.
Answer: B

14. A potential new customer needs servers and requests a response to their hardware specifications, which are all related to hardware speeds, disk, and memory configuration. The customer requests a quote within 48 hours. Which of the following should the System x Sales Specialist do to MAXIMIZE the odds of winning this business?
A. Request an extension because 48 hours will not be enough time to propose an appropriate solution.
B. Ask the customer for a call to learn more about their needs and respond to their request with a complete solution.
C. Use the configuration guide or spreadsheet configurator to assemble server configurations that meet the specification, and then look for the lowest price.
D. Contact the IBM Client Representative for this account and ask for assistance in setting up a meeting with the technical decision maker of the prospective customer.
Answer: B

15. A Sales Specialist receives an email from a customer, requesting information on IBM's best Server Consolidation solution. How should the Sales Specialist proceed?
A. Send the customer information on VMware
B. Send the customer information on IBM BladeCenter
C. Call the customer to ask why they are consolidating
D. Send the customer information on IBM System P
Answer: C

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2009-07-14T09:32:00.000-07:00

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000-019 IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.8 Implementation
000-021 IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler V8.5 Implementation
000-M35 IBM Info Management Informix Dynamic Server Technical Mastery

IBM Certification 000-M04 complete practice questions

2009-07-11T09:47:00.000-07:00

Cheat-test 000-M04 Certification Exam

1. Which of the following are valid editions within the WebSphere Application Server V6 offering?
A. WebSphere Application Server (base)
B. WebSphere Application Server Small Business
C. WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment
D. WebSphere Application Server Express
Answer: ACD
2. Which of the following components are included as part of WebSphere Application Server's basic architecture?
A. Messaging engine
B. Name server
C. HTTP server
D. JavaBeans container
Answer: ABC
3. Which of the following are supported cell configurations where co-existence of WebSphere Application Server
versions exists?
A. Version 5.x nodes can be included in a Version 6 cell
B. Version 6 servers can be added to mixed Version 5.x/Version 6 clusters
C. Version 6 servers can be added to a Version 5.x cluster
D. Co-existence of versions cannot occur
Answer: AB
4. Which version of the J2EE specification is WebSphere Application Server V6 based on?
A. J2EE 1.1
B. J2EE 1.2
C. J2EE 1.3
D. J2EE 1.4
Answer: D
5. What technology is intended to make it easier for application and tool developers to create, view, update, and
delete data that is stored in a variety of backend data stores?
A. WebSphere instances
B. Single signon
C. Service Data Object architecture
D. Enterprise Service Bus
Answer: C
6. Which of the following are true of WebSphere Platform Messaging and WebSphere Application Server V6?
A. The messaging server process is part of the application server.
B. There is no connectivity to external instances of WebSphere MQ.
C. Each server can have its own messaging engine.
D. The base installation provides a pure Java JMS 1.0 provider as part of the application server.
Answer: AC
7. When installing the application serving environment, what are the options for beginning the installation for
each component (i.e., the WebSphere Application Server, IBM HTTP Server, etc)
A. Install each component directly using the install command in the component directory
B. Extract the downloadable ZIP files to the appropriate installation directory
C. Use the launchpad to install any component on the product disc
D. Start the WebSphere Application Server installation and install each option from within this process
Answer: AC
8. What can a system administrator use to access and administer WebSphere Application Server?
A. Standalone administrative console
B. Web-based administrative console
C. wsadmin command-line client
D. JMX-based custom administrative client
Answer: BCD
9. Which of the following are true regarding the AdminApplication?
A. Accessed through http://localhost:9060/ibm/adminApp
B. Runs exclusively within the node agent on a node
C. Can be managed through the console's listing of installed applications
D. Protected by WebSphere security
Answer: D
10. Which of the following are options for starting a stand-alone application server?
A. Access the application server using the administrative console and click Start
B. Issue the startServer command at the command line
C. Issue the startNode command
D. Run a wsadmin script that contains the startServer command
Answer: B

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11. Which of the following are true of the various command line tools available with WebSphere Application
Server to start and stop the WebSphere managed processes?
A. Command line tools can be run for local servers, local nodes, remote servers, and remote nodes
B. The server must be running to access all the command line tools
C. Each command must be executed relative to a specified or default profile
D. Running a command from the application server's bin directory executes the command against the default
profile
Answer: CD
12. Using the Ant tool provided with WebSphere Application Server, what pre-defined tasks can you carry out
with Ant scripts?
A. Start and stop servers in a base configuration
B. Run the EJB deployment tool
C. Run the JSP file precompilation tool
D. Install and uninstall application servers
Answer: ABC
13. What are a set of WebSphere user-customizable data files, which run in combination with a set of shared
read-only product binary files, called?
A. Product files
B. Configuration files
C. Data files
D. Profiles
Answer: D
14. What tools are used to create profiles?
A. First steps console
B. Profile creation wizard
C. wsadmin
D. wasprofile
Answer: BD
15. Which features supported by WebSphere Application Server V6 facilitate simplified deployment and updating
of enterprise applications?
A. Security roles
B. Fine-grained updates
C. Enhanced EAR file support
D. Minimum file security
Answer: BC
16. Applications that will be deployed on WebSphere Application Server V6 may contain which of the following
files types?
A. J2EE-compliant deployment descriptors
B. IBM bindings
C. IBM extensions
D. HTML and GIF files
Answer: ABCD
17. Which one of the following is a quick method of accessing a set of applications that demonstrate common
enterprise application tasks?
A. The Samples Gallery
B. Creating and installing a simple Hello World application
C. WebSphere Tutorial Suite
D. Migrating applications from previously installed versions of WebSphere Application Server
Answer: A
18. What application assembly tools are included with WebSphere Application Server?
A. Application Assembly Tool
B. Rational Application Developer
C. Application Server Toolkit
D. wsadmin
Answer: C
19. What is the function of class loaders?
A. Ensure that deployed application modules can access the classes and resources they require to run
B. Preload classes required for installing WebSphere Application Server
C. Load classes at application installation time
D. Improve performance of the application server
Answer: A
20. Which of the following modules are installable on WebSphere Application Server?
A. EAR files
B. WAR files
C. RAR files
D. ZIP files
Answer: ABC
21. What tasks can be performed with wsadmin?
A. Scripting
B. Application configuration
C. Administration from the command line
D. Profile creation
Answer: ABC
22. What is the object-oriented scripting language that can be used with wsadmin?
A. Jython
B. Javascript
C. Java
D. C++
Answer: A
23. Which wsadmin object accesses the WebSphere Application Server static configuration information to
facilitate configuration changes?
A. AdminApp
B. AdminConfig
C. AdminTask
D. Help
Answer: B
24. Which authentication mechanisms are supported by WebSphere Application Server V6?
A. LDAP
B. LTPA
C. SWAM
D. JAAS
Answer: BC
25. What mechanism allows a user to authenticate only once in a DNS domain and be able to access resources in
other WebSphere Application Server cells without getting prompted again?
A. LTPA
B. Single signon
C. JAAS
D. Unified security
Answer: B
26. Which of the following are true regarding security in WebSphere Application Server?
A. Java2 security is enabled by default
B. Enabling administrative security activates security on all WebSphere Application Server components
C. Incorrectly configuring security can result in inadvertently locking users out of the administrative console
D. Java 2 security and administrative security can be configured independently of one another
Answer: BCD
27. What provides server-side data collection and a client-side API to retrieve performance data?
A. Performance viewer
B. Tivoli Performance Viewer
C. Performance Monitoring Infrastructure
D. Advisor architecture
Answer: C
28. Which performance advisors are provided by WebSphere Application Server?
A. Performance and Diagnostic Advisor
B. Tivoli Performance Viewer's performance advisor
C. Performance Monitoring Infrastructure advisors
D. JVM Performance Advisor
Answer: AB
29. Which of the following are useful resources for identifying problems in WebSphere Application Server?
A. JNDI dump name space
B. Log Analyzer
C. Log files
D. Launchpad
Answer: ABC
30. Which log files only contain information logged by WebSphere Application Server as it starts up and shuts
down?
A. StartServer.log
B. SystemOut.log
C. StopServer.log
D. Activity.log
Answer: AC

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000-208 Exam Questions - Final Part

2009-07-11T09:43:00.000-07:00

Cheat-test.com IBM 000-208 exam prep

Q: 101 A customer is comparing the IBM storage solution with a competitor's
product. What tool shows the customer the value of the IBM solution?
A. eConfig
B. TCOnow!
C. Competeline
D. competitor's website
Answer: B
Q: 102 A customer currently has an EMC CLARiiON, EMC Symmetrix, and an HP
EVA. The customer is running out of storage space. The customer needs to add capacity and reduce
complexity and cost without replacing its existing storage infrastructure. The customer must build out a
business continuity strategy. What is the best strategy?
A. Install an IBM System Storage SAN Volume Controller (SVC) to move to a single management and
replication solution for all vendors and install additional IBM disks as needed.
B. Install IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Disk to manage all the SAN storage so the customer can
determine which data is really needed.
C. Install an IBM System Storage DS8100 and migrate all the data to this system to reduce the complexity of
the environment and add additional capacity.
D. Install an IBM System Storage N5500 system to consolidate the environment and move to a single
platform.
Answer: A
Q: 103 A customer is installing an IBM System Storage DS6800 at its backup data
center. Which storage system can be used to implement Metro Mirror with the main data center?
A. IBM DS4800
B. IBM DS8100
C. IBM EXP 24
D. IBM N5500
Answer: B
Q: 104 The DR550 solution is comprised of a DS4000 with SATA drives, Tivoli
System Storage Archive Manager, and which of the following?
A. System x running Red Hat Linux
B. System x running Windows 2003
C. System p running Linux
D. System p running AIX
Answer: D
Q: 105 Which resource provides IBM Business Partners technical assistance with
their Innovation Centers (BPIC)?
A. Supportline
B. IBM Advanced Technical Support
C. Partnerline
D. IBM Innovation Center
Answer: D
Q: 106 Which is a characteristic of the IBM System Storage SAN Volume
Controller?
A. requires an agent on each server
B. requires no special zoning
C. provides dynamic data migration capabilities
D. provides Out-of-Band performance
Answer: C
Q: 107 A customer consolidates all server storage onto the SAN Volume Controller
with backend DS4700 disk. After the configuration changed, the servers were not able to access the
virtual disks that were assigned. What can be done to isolate the problem?
A. investigate server compatibility
B. investigate the switch zoning configuration
C. investigate the data rate settings on the switch
D. investigate the SDD settings
Answer: B
Q: 108 A customer has several island solutions for backup. The customer plans to
buy a backup solution to consolidate the hardware and to centralize the management. The backup
capacity across all systems is approximately 200 TB. Which is the most cost-effective solution that meets
this customer's requirements?
A. buy a tape library that covers the entire backup capacity; use TSM as a centralized backup management
B. buy a tape library that covers the entire backup capacity; use LAN-free clients to utilize the best bandwidth
to tape
C. implement FlashCopy to provide a second copy of data on disk storage
D. backup to SATA disk because it is more cost effective than tape
Answer: A
Q: 109 A customer has an IBM System Storage DS8100 and wants a second copy of
the data immediately available for disaster recovery purposes. What is the most cost-effective solution?
A. add a second DS8100 at the disaster recovery site
B. add an DS6800 at the disaster recovery site and buy Metro Mirror software for both disk subsystems
C. mirror the data to another disk within the existing DS8100
D. add a DS8100 at the disaster recovery site and buy Metro Mirror software for both disk subsystems
Answer: B
Q: 110 Which product is used to maintain accurate information about a customer's
storage utilization?
A. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Disk
B. IBM System Storage Data Retention 550
C. IBM System Storage SAN Volume Controller
D. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Data
Answer: D
Q: 111 A customer wants to create an HACMP environment using two IBM System
p servers. What is the minimum number of Fibre Channel ports that should be used with each server to
connect the IBM System Storage DS8100?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
Q: 112 Which is a powerful and versatile performance modeling product for IBM,
EMC, and HDS disk subsystems?
A. Disk Magic
B. Capacity Magic
C. Tape Magic
D. TPC for Disk
Answer: A
Q: 113 A customer is adding an IBM System Storage DS4800 for a new Exchange
2003 e-mail solution to meet the following requirements:
-- 20% yearly growth
-- 2,500 mailboxes
-- approximately 50/50 mix of read/write operations
The storage specialist has been asked to model this configuration using the expected workload to verify
the solution. What is needed to start modeling?
A. 73 GB 15K RPM drives
B. the size of the users' Exchange mailbox
C. the number of servers running Exchange
D. Jetstress tool that will be used to emulate the Exchange environment
Answer: B
Q: 114 A customer is currently running a Microsoft Exchange application and is
interested in a new disk storage subsystem. What will have the greatest impact in sizing the subsystem?
A. expected read/write ratio
B. logical volume partitioning
C. expected I/O per second
D. number of users
Answer: D
Q: 115 The customer has a server connected to IBM and EMC storage via a single
SAN. The IBM storage is using SDD and EMC storage is using PowerPath. What is the minimum
number of Fibre Channel host ports needed to provide redundant paths to both storage subsystems?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D
Q: 116 Which technology promises to reduce hardware infrastructure cost while
maintaining block level I/O?
A. DAS
B. NAS
C. SAN
D. iSCSI
Answer: D
Q: 117 A customer is considering the purchase of an IBM System Storage DS4800 to
accommodate future growth for a critical application. The customer has questions about the
administration of the storage system. Which interface will be used for set up and administration of the
storage system?
A. iSCSI port
B. Ethernet port
C. serial port
D. SAS port
Answer: B
Q: 118 A business partner sold an IBM System Storage DS3400 attached to
Windows servers. The customer calls IBM asking for configuration assistance. What is the appropriate
response?
A. It should be suggested that the customer purchase a Supportline contract.
B. The business partner should be contacted.
C. IBM should send in a Field Technical Sales Support (FTSS).
D. IBM should send in the Customer Engineer (CE).
Answer: A
Q: 119 A customer has several IBM System p servers with multiple Fibre Channel
adapters attached to an IBM System Storage DS6800. What provides alternate path failover and load
balancing?
A. Logical Volume Manager
B. Multi Path I/O
C. IBM System Storage TCP for Data
D. Redundant Disk Array Controller
Answer: B
Q: 120 Which LTO3 automated tape solution should be used for cost-effective
storage of 40 TB of mpeg data using IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Space Management?
A. IBM System Storage TS3100 Tape Library
B. IBM System Storage TS3200 Tape Library
C. IBM System Storage TS3310 Tape Library
D. IBM System Storage TS3500 Tape Library
Answer: C
Q: 121 A customer has a write I/O intensive application. What has the greatest
effect on performance?
A. swapping out to a larger drive size
B. memory in server
C. disk drive spindles
D. cache in the disk subsystem
Answer: C
Q: 122 A customer stores 1 TB of data on an IBM System p server. The customer
has major budgetary constraints. Total cost of ownership and 2:1 data compression are the primary
requirements. Which is the best solution for unattended tape backup/restore?
A. IBM System Storage TS3310 Tape Library
B. IBM System Storage TS1120 Tape Drive
C. IBM System Storage TS3100 Tape Library Express Model
D. IBM System Storage TS3200 Tape Library Express Model
Answer: C
Q: 123 A client deployed an IBM System Storage N5500 to support a Microsoft
Exchange implementation via iSCSI. The client needs to improve I/O response times. Which solution
meets the client's requirements?
A. add FCP support to the N5500
B. mount the Exchange files via NFS
C. mount the Exchange files via CIFS
D. migrate the data to SATA drives
Answer: A
Q: 124 A customer is installing a DS6800, along with a SAN Volume Controller
(SVC), and new SAN switches. Which resource lists the total power and cooling requirements for the
DS6800?
A. System Storage sales website
B. PartnerWorld website
C. DS6800 Service Guide
D. DS6800 SAPR Guide
Answer: D
Q: 125 A customer plans to complete migration of mainframe database applications
to System p servers within the next six months. The customer has an immediate requirement for an
additional 20 TB of usable disk space for the System p servers. IBM, HP, Dell, and Sun have been invited
to bid on this opportunity. Which disk product provides the most cost-effective solution?
A. IBM System Storage DS3000
B. IBM System Storage DS4000
C. IBM System Storage N3700
D. IBM System Storage DS6000
Answer: B
Q: 126 A customer is installing an IBM System Storage DS4000 and an ONStor
Bobcat 2200 Series NAS Gateway into its heterogeneous server environment. Which resource provides
details concerning an IBM supported configuration for the solution?
A. IBM Storage Proven
B. IBM Competeline
C. IBM Techline
D. IBM Supportline
Answer: A
Q: 127 A customer needs 2 TB of disk capacity for a streaming video application.
What is the most appropriate and cost-effective IBM disk drive technology for this customer?
A. 300 GB 15K RPM FC
B. 300 GB 10K RPM FC
C. 300 GB 15K RPM UltraSCSI
D. 750 GB 7.2K RPM SATA
Answer: D
Q: 128 A customer has redundant SAN fabrics. An IBM System p server is attached
with dual HBAs for high availability to a SAN-attached DS4800. RDAC is installed on the server. The
switch that connects to one HBA in the server has failed. What is the impact on the IBM System p
server?
A. LUN access, with the primary path that has failed, will be rerouted.
B. All I/Os will be routed through the LAN.
C. Reboot will be required.
D. RDAC will compress data on the surviving path.
Answer: A
Q: 129 Which technology allows for long distance replication over 80 kilometers (50
miles)?
A. FC/IP
B. iSCSI
C. FICON
D. ESCON
Answer: A
Q: 130 A customer has a Windows server with a Serial Attached SCSI (SAS)
adapter. The customer wants a new tape technology that provides Write-Once, Read-Many (WORM)
capability. The customer has no existing SAN infrastructure. Which tape product best meets the
customer's requirements?
A. IBM System Storage TS1030
B. IBM System Storage TS1040
C. IBM System Storage TS1120
D. IBM System Storage TS2230
Answer: B
Q: 131 Which is a primary benefit of SAN switch trunking?
A. increased ISL bandwidth
B. port speed auto-negotiation
C. fabric zone configuration propagation
D. inter-connection of 1-, 2- and 4-Gb switches
Answer: A
Q: 132 A customer has an application that it wants to mirror data between two IBM
System Storage DS4700s. Data loss in the event of a failure is unacceptable. Which data replication
solution best meets the customer's requirement?
A. Global Mirror
B. Metro Mirror
C. FlashCopy
D. Global Copy
Answer: B
Q: 133 What is the name of the IBM Web application that brings IBM brand
information together in one place to help increase IBM Services revenue?
A. Attach Connector
B. TechLine
C. eConfig
D. TCOnow!
Answer: A
Q: 134 Which statement is true about the IBM System Storage Software Solutions
strategy?
A. It supports all IBM server platforms and reduces customer administration.
B. It provides customized APIs to manage selected vendors' hardware.
C. It includes infrastructure and data management across heterogeneous storage infrastructures.
D. It offers 24 x 7 support for hardware, software, and services.
Answer: C
Q: 135 A customer wants to implement an IBM System Storage DS8100 with four
FC host bus adapters for 20 Windows servers. Each Windows server currently has an FC HBA. Which is
the most cost-effective solution that achieves the required connectivity?
A. one IBM TotalStorage SAN32M-2 (2026-432)
B. one Cisco MDS 9216A Fabric Switch (2054-D1A)
C. one IBM TotalStorage SAN256B (2109-M48)
D. four IBM TotalStorage SAN16B-2s (2005-B16)
Answer: A
Q: 136 A customer has an application for sequential data access. This application is
1 TB and uses five or six disk drives. Which device interface gives the customer the best price and
performance?
A. FC-IP
B. iSCSI
C. Ultra3 SCSI
D. FC
Answer: D
Q: 137 A customer plans to install an IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for
Fabric. The current SAN is comprised of both IBM TotalStorage SAN m-type and b-type switch and
director products. Which factor would have the most significant immediate effect?
A. fewer SAN fibre ports
B. lower SAN fabric costs
C. lower SAN backup costs
D. fewer SAN management tools
Answer: D
Q: 138 A customer has a requirement for 4 TB of native data to be stored on an
automated tape library. The customer wants a solution that can address the challenges of tape drive
capacity, speed, and planned growth of 50% per year for five years. Cost is also a consideration. Which
solution best meets the customer's requirements?
A. IBM System Storage TS3200 Tape Library
B. IBM System Storage TS3310 Tape Library
C. IBM System Storage TS3100 Tape Library
D. IBM System Storage TS3500 Tape Library
Answer: A
Q: 139 A customer is interested in updating its infrastructure to provide data
replication capabilities between the corporate offices and a sales office 900 km (540 miles) away. The
customer currently has both UNIX and Microsoft Windows 2003 servers sharing storage resources. Some
applications are very response-time sensitive. Which replication solution is best for this customer?
A. IBM System Storage DS6800 with Metro Mirror
B. IBM System Storage DS4800 with Metro Mirror
C. IBM System Storage DS4800 with FlashCopy
D. IBM System Storage DS6800 with Global Mirror
Answer: D
Q: 140 The customer needs to collect data during a proof of concept to show
performance criteria was met. What is the most cost-effective solution?
A. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center
B. IBM System Storage SAN Volume Controller
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager
D. IBM Workload Manager
Answer: A

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000-208 IBM testking download exam questions - Part 2

2009-07-11T09:35:00.000-07:00

Cheat-test.com IBM 000-208 exam prep

Part 2

Q: 51 A customer has Veritas NetBackup installed and is concerned about restore
times for multiple files. Which IBM Tivoli Storage Manager feature addresses this customer's concerns?
A. collocation
B. compression
C. migration
D. subfile backup
Answer: A
Q: 52 A customer environment has grown to include Brocade, McData, and Cisco
SAN Switches. The customer is concerned with the amount of training needed to manage the multiple
interfaces of these products. Which product should the IBM sales representative recommend to the
customer?
A. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center
B. IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager
C. IBM System Storage SAN Volume Controller
D. SAN Health Professional
Answer: A
Q: 53 A windows-based application runs on IBM's compliance solution IBM System
Storage DR550 and should be integrated into a hierarchical storage management (HSM). What should be
considered if lower storage tiers (e.g. Tape or Optical solutions) must be integrated behind the DR550?
A. IBM 3995 (SCSI attached)
B. IBM 3995 (SCSI attached) and TS1120 (FC attached)
C. TS1120 (FC attached) and IBM 3996 (SCSI attached)
D. TS1120 (FC attached)
Answer: D
Q: 54 A customer orders an IBM System Storage DS4000 with dual power supplies.
Which site requirement ensures high power availability?
A. dual rack-mounted UPS devices
B. dual power lines
C. multiple primary power circuits with multiple UPS
D. high-density dual-power distribution units in the rack
Answer: C
Q: 55 What is the maximum capacity of a single-engine fully configured DR550 with
750 GB SATA II drives and a fully configured TS3310 tape library with LT04 drives?
A. 316 TB
B. 168 TB
C. 484 TB
D. 856 TB
Answer: C
Q: 56 A customer currently has LTO Gen 2 tape, located in an IBM 3582 library.
They need to double their tape capacity, but have no additional rack space. They expect to grow by
approximately 20% per year. Which solution meets the customer's requirements?
A. IBM TS1030
B. IBM TS3310
C. IBM TS3200
D. upgrade the IBM 3582 library to Gen 4 tape drives
Answer: C
Q: 57 A customer is installing an IBM System Storage DS6800 at its backup data
center. Which storage system can be used to implement Metro Mirror with the main data center?
A. IBM DS4800
B. IBM DS8100
C. IBM EXP 24
D. IBM N5500
Answer: B
Q: 58 In addition to LUN masking, which administrative task(s) can be performed
with the IBM System Storage DS4000 Storage Manager?
A. port masking
B. LUN expansion
C. port masking and LUN reduction
D. LUN expansion and LUN reduction
Answer: B
Q: 59 When the IBM System Storage DS4000 Remote Mirroring premium feature is
activated, how many Mirror Repository logical drives are created per subsystem?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Answer: C
Q: 60 A customer's current backup environment uses IBM Tivoli Storage Manager
over the corporate 100BaseT network. A 500 GB Oracle database application was recently added to the
SAN. Backup windows are no longer being met. Which action should be recommended by the storage
specialist?
A. implement the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for SAN
B. add an additional Ethernet card to the TSM server
C. virtualize the storage with a SAN Volume Controller
D. implement IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Space Management
Answer: A
Q: 61 A customer needs to implement a centralized disk storage solution to support
three IBM System i servers running i5/OS, and 20 Intel servers supporting a mixture of Novell NetWare
6.5 and Microsoft Windows 2003. Which disk storage solution should a storage specialist recommend to
support this environment?
A. IBM System Storage N3700
B. IBM System Storage DS3400
C. IBM System Storage DS6800
D. IBM System Storage DS4800
Answer: C
Q: 62 A customer has a requirement for 8 TB of data to be stored on tape. The
customer wants the most cost-effective automated LTO3 solution. Which solution meets the customer's
requirements?
A. IBM System Storage TS3310 Tape Library
B. IBM System Storage TS3200 Tape Library
C. IBM System Storage TS3100 Tape Library
D. IBM System Storage TS1030 Tape Drive
Answer: C
Q: 63 A customer requires off-site storage for 500 GB per night in backups. The
backup site is 560 kilometers (350 miles) away. The customer does not require the backup site to run the
application in the event of failure at the main site. Which is the least expensive strategy for the data
center to implement?
A. make online image backups
B. ship nightly backup tapes to the remote site
C. install an HACMP environment and mirror data
D. install IBM Tivoli Storage Manager and IBM System Storage tape drive at the backup site
Answer: B
Q: 64 Which tool calculates raw and effective storage space on a DS8000 or
DS6000?
A. Capacity Magic
B. Disk Magic
C. TCOnow!
D. eConfig
Answer: A
Q: 65 Which cable connector type is required when connecting an IBM System
Storage TS1120 Tape Drive directly to an IBM TotalStorage SAN32B-3 with shortwave small
form-factor pluggable (SFP)?
A. SC-to-SC cable
B. SC-to-LC cable
C. SC-to-ST cable
D. LC-to-LC cable
Answer: D
Q: 66 A customer needs to limit the total time it takes to back up an existing DB2
database. What information is necessary to understand the customer requirements?
A. the amount of data
B. whether the data is random or sequential
C. the size of the disk array
D. the number of days backups are scheduled
Answer: A
Q: 67 A customer indicates that the competition has features that the IBM solution
is missing. What is the recommended resource to better understand competitors' products?
A. IBM Competeline
B. TCOnow!
C. ibm.com website
D. Interoperability Matrix
Answer: A
Q: 68 A customer's IBM System Storage DS4800 has several volumes fail over to
their non-preferred path. What should the customer do prior to contacting IBM technical support?
A. capture state information
B. save MELog
C. capture all support data
D. gather Read Link Status diagnostics
Answer: C
Q: 69 What differentiates an IBM System Storage TS3200 Tape Library from an
IBM System Storage TS3310 Tape Library for an open-system environment?
A. standalone or rack mounted
B. support for TS1120 tape drives
C. logical library sharing
D. upgradeable storage slot capacity
Answer: D
Q: 70 A customer has two Intel-based Linux servers and wants to have 700 GB of
disk to share between them. Disk I/O performance is very important to the customer. The sales team has
recommended an IBM System Storage DS4700. The Intel-based Linux servers are to be located less than
50 meters (164 feet) from the IBM DS4700. The customer wants two Fibre Channel adapters in each
Linux server. How many IBM System Storage SAN Switches are required for high availability at the
lowest cost?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Answer: A
Q: 71 A new client currently has a multi-tier storage environment consisting of
EMC's DMX subsystems. They have expressed displeasure with the high costs of TimeFinder and
additional disks in the DMX systems. Which of the following would provide the lowest cost alternative
for providing instant copies of the DMX LUNs for backups?
A. DS4700 with Fibre Channel drives and Enhanced Remote Mirroring
B. DS4800 with SATA drives, Enhanced Remote Mirroring, and FlashCopy
C. SVC with FlashCopy and a DS4200 with SATA drives
D. SVC with FlashCopy and a DS4700 with Fibre channel drives
Answer: C
Q: 72 A business is expanding its market by supporting order entry via the Internet
and wants to provide continuous access to the new application. Which disk subsystem attribute is most
important in achieving this goal?
A. use of RAID 5
B. large cache size
C. large disk stripe size
D. Fibre Channel interface
Answer: A
Q: 73 A client who recently installed an IBM System Storage DS4800 for Exchange
is now interested in adding a new high performance, data warehouse application to the disk system.
Which configuration on the DS4800 provides the best possible performance for the data warehouse
application?
A. RAID 5 and a large segment size
B. RAID 1 and a small segment size
C. RAID 5 and default cache block size
D. RAID 1 and 32k cache block size
Answer: A
Q: 74 An application development organization has identified performance
requirements for a new application. What would have the LEAST impact on I/O performance?
A. clock rate of the system CPU
B. number of disk drives
C. number of I/O processor adapters
D. amount of system memory
Answer: A
Q: 75 A customer has a heterogeneous environment that is backed up using IBM
Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) attached to a tape silo. Due to network congestion, the expanding data
within the environment can no longer be backed up within the time available. Which action resolves the
network problem?
A. install an additional TSM Server
B. utilize LAN free backups over the SAN
C. install iSCSI to improve block I/O throughput
D. increase the number of tape drives within the silo
Answer: B
Q: 76 A customer has a data center with a DS4700 and a redundant SAN
infrastructure consisting of SAN16B-2 switches. The customer must provide storage for a clustered
Microsoft Exchange environment that is located within the data center but is over 200 meters (656 feet)
away. The servers do not have Fibre Channel connectivity. What is the most appropriate solution?
A. utilizing an N series Gateway and iSCSI
B. using an N series Gateway and Ethernet connectivity
C. using TPC for Replication to mirror the data over the network
D. using SAN Volume Controller
Answer: A
Q: 77 A customer has 600 GB of data that needs to be backed up on a nightly basis
between midnight and 1:30 a.m. The customer has a direct-attached IBM System Storage TS3500 Tape
Library. What is the minimum number of TS1030 drives (without compression) required to accomplish
this?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
Q: 78 What is the maximum capacity of a single-engine fully configured DR550 with
750 GB SATA II drives and a fully configured TS3310 tape library with LT04 drives?
A. 316 TB
B. 168 TB
C. 484 TB
D. 856 TB
Answer: C
Q: 79 Which technology should a storage specialist recommend to a customer who is
backing up and restoring many small files on a tape device?
A. IBM System Storage TS1030 Tape Drive
B. IBM System Storage TS1040 Tape Drive
C. IBM System Storage TS1120 Tape Drive
D. IBM 7206 Tape Drive
Answer: C
Q: 80 A customer has a requirement to mirror data over the network as quickly as
possible. Which network type best meets the customer's requirements?
A. OC12
B. 622 ATM
C. Ultra 320 SCSI
D. 10 Gb Ethernet
Answer: D
Q: 81 When using the FlashCopy feature on an IBM System Storage DS4800, what
is the default storage capacity allocated for copy purposes?
A. 100% of the source's capacity
B. 20% of the source's capacity
C. 50% of the source's capacity
D. 10% of the source's capacity
Answer: B
Q: 82 A customer with an IBM System p server wants to attach an IBM System
Storage DS6800 and needs to know if the System p Fibre Channel adapter is supported. What is the
recommended source for this information?
A. IBM TechLine
B. IBM Storage website
C. IBM DS6800 Installation and Planning Guide
D. IBM Storage Specialist
Answer: B
Q: 83 IBM LTO Ultrium 4 technology has which of the following characteristics?
A. 200 GB capacity per tape and 40 MB per sec data throughput
B. 400 GB capacity per tape and 80 MB per sec data throughput
C. 500 GB capacity per tape and 100 MB per sec data throughput
D. 800 GB capacity per tape and 120 MB per sec data throughput
Answer: D
Q: 84 An IT department needs to migrate its data from a direct-attached single
controller IBM System Storage DS4300 to a clustered environment. The application that was under
testing will be moving to a mission-critical status. The current DS4300 is direct-attached to an IBM
System x 3850 (x366) server. The customer is purchasing three new System x 3850 servers for the cluster,
and wants each to have complete redundancy. Which option is the most cost efficient?
A. IBM System Storage DS6800 with two SAN 32B switches
B. IBM System Storage DS4700 with two SAN 32B switches
C. IBM System Storage DS4800 with two SAN 32B switches
D. IBM System Storage DS3200 with two SAN 32B switches
Answer: B
Q: 85 A customer has an IBM System Storage DS4800 and needs to add more disk
drives to the unit. There is no record of the configuration for this machine. How can the configuration be
retrieved so an MES can be ordered?
A. have the customer contact the IBM AAS coordinator to retrieve a copy of the original configuration
B. manually enter system information into BaseEdit of the eConfig program, and provide proof of purchase
C. use the IBM Standalone Systems Configuration Tool (SSCT) to recreate the configuration
D. contact the IBM Service Support Representative (SSR) to retrieve the configuration from the DS4800
Answer: B
Q: 86 A customer wants to test path failover using a test System p server using
DS4000 storage. The server has two HBA ports in a redundant SAN environment. Which action verifies
the availability of multiple paths before the testing begins?
A. lsdev -Cc disk
B. lsdev -C | grep dac
C. lsdev -C | grep dar
D. lsattr -El hdisk1
Answer: B
Q: 87 To meet new service level agreements, a customer must have 38,000 IOPS
available for its database. The customer currently uses an IBM System Storage DS4300 with 112 15K,
146 GB drives. Which solution should cause the least disruption to the customer?
A. IBM System Storage DS4800
B. IBM System Storage N5500
C. IBM System Storage DS6800
D. IBM System Storage DS8100
Answer: A
Q: 88 A customer has several Intel-based servers with local attached disk. They
recently installed an IBM System Storage DS8100 attached to two UNIX servers for a database
application. The customer is now interested in evaluating duplicate files in their Intel environment.
Which IBM product best meets the customer's requirement?
A. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Data
B. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Disk
C. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Fabric
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager
Answer: A
Q: 89 Which I/O characteristic should lead a storage specialist to recommend to a
customer a RAID 10 implementation on an IBM System Storage DS4700?
A. large number of small block random reads
B. large number of small block random writes
C. large number of large block sequential reads
D. large number of large block sequential writes
Answer: B
Q: 90 Which file type is used for input into the eConfig program to create an MES
to an existing machine?
A. .cfr file
B. .wks file
C. .mes file
D. .txt file
Answer: A
Q: 91 Refer to the exhibit.

A customer with a DS4800 is experiencing problems. They are trying to determine if there is a
component or storage subsystem in the loop that is the root cause. They have run a Read Link Status
Diagnostics over an extended period of time.
Which column would indicate possible problems?
A. ITW
B. LOS
C. LOSG
D. ICRC
Answer: A
Q: 92 Which tool provides the customer with a list of storage components as well as
a basic diagram?
A. eConfig
B. Disk Magic
C. TCOnow!
D. Capacity Magic
Answer: A
Q: 93 Which IBM disk subsystem provides Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) interfaces
for host attachment?
A. Systems Storage TS3400
B. Systems Storage DS3400
C. Systems Storage N3700
D. Systems Storage DS3200
Answer: D
Q: 94 Two Microsoft Windows 2003 servers are located in a site 25 kilometers (15
miles) from the IBM System Storage DS4700. The customer wants two Fibre Channel adapters in each
Microsoft Windows 2003 server. The customer has access to two pairs of dark fiber between the sites.
Which configuration is required for high availability?
A. two switches with multi-mode cabling
B. two switches with single-mode cabling
C. four switches with multi-mode cabling
D. four switches with single-mode cabling
Answer: D
Q: 95 A customer is running Oracle V9 on a Sun server, connected to an EMC
Symmetrix disk array. The database is 1 TB in size and produces about 1 GB of archive logs per day. The
customer is using RMAN to back up the Oracle database to a Sun STK tape silo. The customer has
recently embarked on a technology update program and wants to eliminate hardware that has poor total
cost of ownership. As part of this program, the customer wants to replace the Sun server with an IBM
System p server, the Sun STK silo with an IBM System Storage TS3500 Tape Library and IBM Tivoli
Storage Manager, and the EMC Symmetrix with an IBM System Storage DS6800.
Which migration method provides minimum outage to the customer?
A. establish a direct peer-to-peer connection between the EMC Symmetrix and IBM DS6800; mirror the
database between disk subsystems; stop production; stop peer-to-peer connection; start the database on the IBM
System p server
B. stop production; NFS mount the IBM DS6800 disk onto the Sun machine and copy the databases across the
Gigabit Ethernet network; back up the database to IBM Tivoli Storage Manager; restart production on the IBM
System p server
C. stop production; back up the Oracle database using the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Data Protection for
Databases; restore the database to the IBM System p server; start production on the IBM System p server
D. perform an online backup of the database using IBM Tivoli Storage Manager; restore the backup to the
IBM System p server; stop production; copy accumulated archive logs to the IBM System p server; roll the
database forward; start production on the IBM System p server
Answer: D
Q: 96 What is the maximum number of mirrored pairs that can exist in an
Enhanced Remote Mirroring configuration on a IBM System Storage DS4800?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
Answer: C
Q: 97 Careful review of the solution with the customer reveals that there is one
small component that is not being supported by IBM. What can be done to obtain IBM support for that
component?
A. ask the Customer Engineer (CE) to support the component
B. ask the Installation Planning Representative (IPR) to support the component
C. ask for a Request for Price Quotation (RPQ)
D. ask TechLine/Partnerline to provide support
Answer: C
Q: 98 In addition to IBM System Storage DS3000, which devices are customer
installable?
A. IBM System Storage DS4000 and IBM System Storage TS3500
B. IBM System Storage DS4000 and IBM System Storage TS3310
C. IBM System Storage DS8100 and IBM System Storage TS3310
D. IBM System Storage DS6800 and IBM System Storage TS3500
Answer: B
Q: 99 Which application would most likely benefit from larger segment size?
A. OLTP database
B. file system
C. Web-based CRM
D. streaming video
Answer: D
Q: 100 A customer currently has LTO Gen 2 tape, located in an IBM 3582 library.
They need to double their tape capacity, but have no additional rack space. They expect to grow by
approximately 20% per year. Which solution meets the customer's requirements?
A. IBM TS1030
B. IBM TS3310
C. IBM TS3200
D. upgrade the IBM 3582 library to Gen 4 tape drives
Answer: C

000-208 IBM testking download exam questions - Part 1

2009-07-11T09:18:00.000-07:00

Cheat-test.com IBM 000-208 exam prep

Tony Cobain ftp the $79 questions, thanks for the share, Tony.

There are 3 parts for the complete 140 questions

Part 1

Q: 1 A customer reports that its application, an Oracle database, is running queries
rather slowly after migrating the application over to an IBM System Storage DS4800. What should the
storage specialist recommend that the customer do first to help resolve the performance issue?
A. monitor the cache hit ratio for the array being used by the application
B. reallocate the stripe size of the array for better performance
C. monitor the array using the Performance Monitor to determine the issue
D. change the RAID level of the array for better performance
Answer: C
Q: 2 A customer has two SAN islands. One SAN consists of two IBM TotalStorage
2109-M48 redundant fabrics with server access to IBM System Storage DS4700 disk in production. The
other SAN consists of two 2109-F16 redundant fabrics with server access to IBM System Storage DS4300
disk in development. The customer plans to migrate the data residing in the DS4300 to the DS4700 and
keep the SANs separate. Which is the least disruptive and most cost-effective solution for connecting the
two SAN islands?
A. add SAN18B-R
B. add a backbone SAN256B
C. add switch ISL trunking
D. add Cisco 9216A
Answer: A
Q: 3 A client who recently installed an IBM System Storage DS4800 for Exchange is
now interested in adding a new high performance, data warehouse application to the disk system. Which
configuration on the DS4800 provides the best possible performance for the data warehouse application?
A. RAID 5 and a large segment size
B. RAID 1 and a small segment size
C. RAID 5 and default cache block size
D. RAID 1 and 32k cache block size
Answer: A
Q: 4 A customer owns a 500 GB usable RAID 5 SCSI disk subsystem attached to a
single host and wants to increase data throughput, reliability, availability, and serviceability. Cost is a
significant consideration. Which solution meets the customer's requirements?
A. convert the RAID 5 subsystem to a RAID 1 subsystem
B. convert the existing subsystem to dual-attached SCSI
C. replace the existing subsystem with an IBM System Storage DS4000
D. replace the existing subsystem with an IBM System Storage DS3000
Answer: D
Q: 5 When an Oracle database is not cache friendly and has a high number of
writes, which disk technology provides the best performance on the IBM System Storage DS6800?
A. 73 GB 10K RPM disk drives
B. 73 GB 15K RPM disk drives
C. 146 GB 10K RPM disk drives
D. 146 GB 15K RPM disk drives
Answer: B
Q: 6 A customer is adding an IBM System Storage DS4800 for a new Exchange 2003
e-mail solution to meet the following requirements:
-- 20% yearly growth
-- 2,500 mailboxes
-- approximately 50/50 mix of read/write operations
The storage specialist has been asked to model this configuration using the expected workload to verify
the solution.
What is needed to start modeling?
A. 73 GB 15K RPM drives
B. the size of the users' Exchange mailbox
C. the number of servers running Exchange
D. Jetstress tool that will be used to emulate the Exchange environment
Answer: B
Q: 7 A customer currently has an IBM System Storage DS4300 and an EMC CX500
installed in its data center that provides storage capacity for existing Windows servers. The customer
wants to preserve its investment in these systems by implementing an IBM System Storage SAN Volume
Controller to virtualize the storage. What must the customer do with regard to its multi-path I/O drivers
for the Windows servers?
A. The customer needs to use RDAC to manage the multiple redundant paths for the DS4300 and the CX500.
B. The customer needs to migrate to PowerPath to manage the multiple redundant paths for the DS4300 and
the CX500.
C. The customer needs to use RDAC for the DS4300 and PowerPath for the CX500 to manage the multiple
redundant paths.
D. The customer needs to migrate to SDD to manage the multiple redundant paths for the DS4300 and the
CX500.
Answer: D
Q: 8 IBM LTO Ultrium 4 technology has which of the following characteristics?
A. 200 GB capacity per tape and 40 MB per sec data throughput
B. 400 GB capacity per tape and 80 MB per sec data throughput
C. 500 GB capacity per tape and 100 MB per sec data throughput
D. 800 GB capacity per tape and 120 MB per sec data throughput
Answer: D
Q: 9 When a customer has a critical situation, who on the IBM team is the central
point of contact to organize resources to fix the problem?
A. Client Representative
B. Customer Support Representative
C. Field Technical Sales Support
D. Customer Engineer
Answer: B
Q: 10 A customer wants to mix Windows and AIX servers on the same SAN. What
does the customer need to ensure success?
A. the correct number of ports on the SAN switches
B. the proper size disk drives
C. sufficient disk drives for each server
D. zoning of the SAN switches
Answer: D
Q: 11 A customer has several Intel-based servers with local attached disk. They
recently installed an IBM System Storage DS8100 attached to two UNIX servers for a database
application. The customer is now interested in evaluating duplicate files in their Intel environment.
Which IBM product best meets the customer's requirement?
A. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Data
B. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Disk
C. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Fabric
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager
Answer: A
Q: 12 What is the function of the IBM Remote Support Manager (RSM)?
A. monitors system status and e-mails the customer when problems occur
B. monitors system status and pages the customer when problems occur
C. monitors the system environment and provides control of power, fan, and controller activities
D. monitors system health and automatically notifies the IBM Support Center via e-mail when problems occur
Answer: D
Q: 13 Which resource makes it possible for new configurations to be supported by
IBM?
A. Request Detail Document (RDD)
B. Request for Information (RFI)
C. Request for Price Quotation (RPQ)
D. Request a Letter 112
Answer: C
Q: 14 A customer has ten servers including Windows, Solaris, and AIX that need
direct access to a single-tape solution. Which tape solution is the most cost-effective way to meet this
requirement?
A. IBM System Storage TS1120 Tape Drive
B. IBM System Storage TS3200 Tape Library
C. IBM System Storage TS3500 Tape Library
D. IBM System Storage TS2340 Tape Drive
Answer: C
Q: 15 A customer must take one of their IBM System Storage DS4000 storage
servers offline for maintenance. The server is being used in an IBM System Storage SAN Volume
Controller (SVC) environment. What should be done to ensure that there is no impact on the customer's
applications?
A. identify all of the servers attached to the SVC, and take them offline during the DS4000 maintenance
update
B. dynamically migrate the vdisks associated with the DS4000 server to a separate storage server, then
perform maintenance
C. consider that SVC will automatically failover and failback to compensate for this type of situation
D. reassign the mDisks from this DS4000 server to another storage pool within the SVC during the
maintenance update to maintain continuous access to data
Answer: B
Q: 16 A customer currently has multiple Sun Solaris servers and wants 500 GB of
new storage capacity to be partitioned among these processors. The storage will replace older Fibre
Channel disks currently attached to the Sun processors. The customer is migrating the Sun systems to
HP-UX platforms in a few months and wants to preserve as much of the new disk subsystem investment
as possible at that time. If cost is a primary consideration, which IBM storage system is the preferred
choice?
A. IBM System Storage N5200 Gateway
B. IBM System Storage DS4700
C. IBM System Storage SAN Volume Controller
D. IBM System Storage DS6800
Answer: B
Q: 17 A customer has three Microsoft Windows 2003 servers, each with 100 GB of
data. It is recommended that an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager disk pool of storage be used for daily
backups. Assuming a 10% change rate with daily migration to tape, within the ranges below what is the
minimum amount of disk space that needs to be added to the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server?
A. 10 GB
B. 50 GB
C. 150 GB
D. 450 GB
Answer: B
Q: 18 Which IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) feature differentiates TSM from
competitive backup software products?
A. management of IBM and non-IBM tape libraries
B. progressive backup
C. effective management of large disk pools
D. support for servers, desktops, and laptops
Answer: B
Q: 19 A distributor is planning to open five locations, with each location requiring a
local nightly backup of 1 TB of data from a Sun server. Performance and cost are key requirements.
Which is the best solution?
A. IBM System Storage TS1030 Tape Drive
B. IBM System Storage TS1120 Tape Drive
C. IBM System Storage TS3100 Tape Library
D. IBM System Storage TS3310 Tape Library
Answer: C
Q: 20 What is the maximum distance that an IBM System Storage DS4000 can be
mirrored without the use of channel extenders?
A. 5 kilometers (3 miles)
B. 10 kilometers (6 miles)
C. 100 kilometers (62 miles)
D. 300 kilometers (186 miles)
Answer: B
Q: 21 The customer has a server connected to IBM and EMC storage via a single
SAN. The IBM storage is using SDD and EMC storage is using PowerPath. What is the minimum
number of Fibre Channel host ports needed to provide redundant paths to both storage subsystems?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D
Q: 22 A customer wants to use IBM Tivoli Storage Manager to back up five
Microsoft Windows 2003 file and print servers and is asking for advice on storage. The customer's
anticipated daily backup increment is approximately 10 GB, which represents 1% of all of the customer's
data. The customer also anticipates an average retention period of 60 days. The customer makes off-site
storage pool backups daily and sends database backups off-site. What is the minimum amount of tape
capacity needed?
A. 0.6 TB
B. 1 TB
C. 3 TB
D. 5 TB
Answer: C
Q: 23 A customer has EMC CLARiiON, EMC Symmetrix, HP EVA, and both
Brocade and McData switches. The customer has expressed concern about the complexity and cost of its
environment. What can the customer install to better understand its environment?
A. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center Standard Edition
B. IBM System Storage SAN Volume Controller
C. Tivoli Intelligent Orchestrator
D. Tivoli Provisioning Manager
Answer: A
Q: 24 Which of the following is the advantage of the IBM System Storage DS4800
Model 80 over the DS4700 Model 72?
A. Allows for more cache memory
B. Reduces processing power from the device adapters
C. Allows for more drives
D. Minimizes the interconnect bandwidth utilization between clusters
Answer: C
Q: 25 To meet new service level agreements, a customer must have 38,000 IOPS
available for its database. The customer currently uses an IBM System Storage DS4300 with 112 15K,
146 GB drives. Which solution should cause the least disruption to the customer?
A. IBM System Storage DS4800
B. IBM System Storage N5500
C. IBM System Storage DS6800
D. IBM System Storage DS8100
Answer: A
Q: 26 Which is a competitive advantage of the IBM System Storage DS4000
MetaData?
A. The MetaData is stored across all drives in the system.
B. The MetaData is stored on the first five drives in the system.
C. The MetaData must be stored on FC drives.
D. The MetaData is stored in the controller, thereby freeing up additional drive space.
Answer: A
Q: 27 A customer has a medical application running under Windows, which is not
capable of interacting with any System Storage Archive Manager APIs. If IBM's Data Retention solution
DR550 is used, what can be done to address this issue?
A. Use the Ethernet Direct Connection Facility (EDCF) in the DR550 to interact with the application.
B. Use the File System Gateway (FSG) to interact with the System Storage Archive Manager API and the
DR550.
C. Use the JAVA native Interface to attach the application to the DR550, without interacting with the API.
D. Use the JAVA native interface or the FSG to directly attach to the DR550, without interacting with the
System Storage Archive Manager API.
Answer: B
Q: 28 A client deployed an IBM System Storage N5500 to support a Microsoft
Exchange implementation via iSCSI. The client needs to improve I/O response times. Which solution
meets the client's requirements?
A. add FCP support to the N5500
B. mount the Exchange files via NFS
C. mount the Exchange files via CIFS
D. migrate the data to SATA drives
Answer: A
Q: 29 An end-user currently has an IBM TotalStorage 3583 Tape Library with four
LTO1 drives with a 12-slot cartridge I/O station. Additional cartridge slots are required to increase
library storage capacity. What is the most cost effective way to increase the capacity by 4.8 TB
(uncompressed) and still provide 4 drives?
A. Upgrade the library to an IBM System Storage TS3200 Tape Library
B. Upgrade the library to an IBM System Storage TS3310 Tape Library
C. Replace LTO1 drives with LTO4 drives
D. Upgrade the library to an IBM System Storage TS3100 Tape Library
Answer: A
Q: 30 What is the maximum number of mirrored pairs that can exist in an
Enhanced Remote Mirroring configuration on a IBM System Storage DS4300 Turbo?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
Answer: B
Q: 31 A customer's SAN environment has undergone significant growth over the
past two years. During the same time period, the customer's administrative personnel has had a high
turnover rate. The customer asks a storage specialist for help in understanding their environment. The
ability to make some configuration changes to devices would also be beneficial. Which tool should the
storage specialist suggest?
A. TPC Limited Edition
B. IBM Tivoli NetView
C. DS4000 Storage Manager
D. Fabric Manager
Answer: A
Q: 32 A customer plans to increase the storage on a database server. Currently, the
system consists of a Sun server with 7 x 36.4 GB SCSI disk drives attached on a single bus. Expected
growth of data is 70% per year and performance level must be maintained. Which storage solution
should be used to replace the drives and provide the customer with the best long-term solution?
A. IBM System Storage DS4700
B. IBM System Storage DS3200
C. IBM System Storage N3700
D. IBM System Storage DS8100
Answer: A
Q: 33 A customer has an existing 10 TB IBM System Storage DS8100 and needs
offsite data storage 500 kilometers (310 miles) away. What is the lowest cost data replication solution?
A. install an IBM System Storage SAN Volume Controller with Global Mirror at both sites and use a DS4700
at the remote site
B. install Remote Mirror and Copy functions at the production site and install a new DS8100 with Remote
Mirror and Copy functions at the remote site
C. install Remote Mirror and Copy functions at the production site and install a new DS8100 at the remote site
D. install Remote Mirror and Copy functions at the production site and install a new DS4700 with Enhanced
Remote Mirror at the remote site
Answer: A
Q: 34 When an IBM Business Partner needs assistance with pre-sales detailed
product-related information, whom should they contact?
A. Field Technical Support Specialist (FTSS)
B. Service Support Representative (SSR)
C. Inside TeleSales Representative (ITSR)
D. TechLine/PartnerLine
Answer: D
Q: 35 A customer is migrating a 600 GB Oracle database from an older IBM System
p server to a new one. The data is on a 2 TB IBM TotalStorage Enterprise Storage Server (ESS) that is
80% full. What is the easiest way to move the data to the new server?
A. Back up the data with the existing tape library and restore it on the new system.
B. Assign the existing LUNs to the new server and use AIX LVM import to acquire the existing data.
C. Perform FlashCopy to the new LUNs and assign the target LUNs to the new server.
D. Perform Metro Mirror to the new LUNs and assign the target LUNs to the new server.
Answer: B
Q: 36 Which statement is true about LTO Gen 4 technology as it relates to Gen 1
tape?
A. Gen 4 can read from, but not write to, a Gen 1 tape.
B. Gen 1 tape will not fit into a Gen 4 tape drive.
C. Gen 4 tape drive can read from, and write to, a Gen 1 tape.
D. Gen 4 tape drive cannot read from, or write to, a Gen 1 tape.
Answer: D
Q: 37 A customer has reviewed the storage specialist's proposal for a centralized
disk solution supporting Sun, HP, Intel, IBM System p, and System i servers. The customer's feedback
indicates that the solution exceeds its budget. The customer also indicates that it has signed an agreement
outsourcing its System i applications. What is the most appropriate change the storage specialist should
make to the proposal?
A. reduce the amount of disk configured in the subsystem only
B. reduce the amount of disk configured in the subsystem and reduce the SAN port count
C. reduce the amount of disk configured, change the subsystem to IBM System Storage DS6800, and reduce
the SAN port count
D. reduce the amount of disk configured, change the subsystem to IBM System Storage DS4700, and reduce
the SAN port count
Answer: D
Q: 38 A customer is running Tivoli Storage Manager on a System p server with a
single HBA attached to an IBM System Storage DS4000 and an IBM System Storage TS3100. The
customer reports intermittent I/O errors. What should the customer do to resolve this problem?
A. call IBM and open a Problem Management Record (PMR)
B. install the Tivoli device driver
C. install an additional HBA in the server and rezone
D. install DS4000 RDAC
Answer: C
Q: 39 A customer has ten IBM System p servers running AIX. Each system has a
dedicated set of IBM Serial Disk Systems (7133) with a total of 5 TB of data. The customer wants to
consolidate its storage in an IBM System Storage DS6800 to better serve its data warehouse application.
Only two hours of downtime are available for migration. Which is the best method for migrating the
data?
A. back up data to tape and restore on the new IBM DS6800
B. reinstall IBM 7133 drawers with Fibre Channel adapters
C. host mirror the data from the IBM 7133 drawers to the IBM DS6800
D. stop processing and issue the copy command to copy data to the new IBM DS6800
Answer: C
Q: 40 A customer will be using an IBM System Storage DS4000. The customer
requires the highest performance for the database server. Which hardware RAID technology should be
recommended to this customer?
A. RAID 3
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 10
D. RAID 50
Answer: C
Q: 41 A customer wants to implement a disk subsystem that provides high data
availability at the lowest cost. Which solution should a storage specialist recommend?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10
Answer: C
Q: 42 A customer has multiple Microsoft Windows servers with a total of
approximately 1 TB of direct-attached storage. All applications are file I/O oriented. Which solution
most efficiently provides more capacity to each server?
A. IBM TotalStorage EXP24
B. IBM System Storage N3700
C. IBM System Storage DS3200
D. IBM System Storage DS4200
Answer: B
Q: 43 A customer is installing an IBM System Storage DS4000 and an ONStor
Bobcat 2200 Series NAS Gateway into its heterogeneous server environment. Which resource provides
details concerning an IBM supported configuration for the solution?
A. IBM Storage Proven
B. IBM Competeline
C. IBM Techline
D. IBM Supportline
Answer: A
Q: 44 In addition to IBM System Storage DS3000, which devices are customer
installable?
A. IBM System Storage DS4000 and IBM System Storage TS3500
B. IBM System Storage DS4000 and IBM System Storage TS3310
C. IBM System Storage DS8100 and IBM System Storage TS3310
D. IBM System Storage DS6800 and IBM System Storage TS3500
Answer: B
Q: 45 A customer is worried that the proposed solution will have limited scalability
and performance. What can you provide the customer to address these concerns?
A. a proof of concept at an IBM Competency Center
B. IBM Redbooks that show scalable steps
C. evaluation equipment, based on the solution
D. benchmark and industry reports to back up the solution
Answer: A
Q: 46 A customer plans to expand its SAN and consolidate its IBM System p servers
and disk systems onto an 8-node SAN Volume Controller cluster. All 30 servers have dual port HBAs for
high availability. There are two IBM System Storage DS4800 disk systems. What is the minimum
number of switch ports required for this consolidation?
A. 92
B. 94
C. 108
D. 110
Answer: C
Q: 47 A customer has the following configuration:
-- four IBM System x servers
-- one SAN FC switch
-- one IBM TotalStorage DS4400
The customer wants immediate data availability. Its remote site is 2 kilometers (1.24 miles) away.
Which solution meets the customer's requirements?
A. install an IBM System Storage TS3200 Tape Library at the remote location, a second SAN FC switch, and
Tivoli Storage Manager software
B. install an IBM System Storage TS3500 Tape Library with FC drives at a remote location, a second SAN FC
switch, and Tivoli Storage Manager software
C. install an IBM System Storage DS4700 at a remote location, a second SAN FC switch, and remote mirror
software
D. install an IBM System Storage DS6800 at a remote location, a second SAN FC switch, and Metro Mirror
software
Answer: C
Q: 48 What information is most important in creating a proof of concept?
A. hardware interoperability
B. customer expectations
C. customer resources for deployment
D. IBM resources for deployment
Answer: B
Q: 49 As the result of a corporate merger, a customer acquires an IBM 3582 Tape
Library with Gen 1 tape drives. The customer wants to integrate their backup process with the existing
IBM System Storage TS3310 library with Gen 4 tape drives. How can the two environments be
combined?
A. use Tivoli Storage Manager to create a new tape pool on the IBM TS3310, then migrate the data from the
IBM 3582
B. move the tapes located in the IBM 3582 to the IBM TS3310
C. move the Gen 1 tape drives and tapes from the IBM 3582 and install them in the IBM TS3310
D. because the IBM 3582 is incompatible with the IBM TS3310, back up existing data from disk to the IBM
TS3310
Answer: A
Q: 50 An application development organization has identified performance
requirements for a new application. What would have the LEAST impact on I/O performance?
A. clock rate of the system CPU
B. number of disk drives
C. number of I/O processor adapters
D. amount of system memory
Answer: A

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IBM 000-041 Free Braindumps - Part 3

2009-07-11T09:16:00.000-07:00

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Cheat-test.com 000-041 Exam Questions:

Q: 51 What is the result, if any, of executing the following code?
DCL B DEC FIXED(15,3) INIT(12345.12);
DCL C PIC '9999999999' INIT (0);
C = B;
A. There is no result, because B contains a decimal point.
B. There is no result, because DEC FIXED cannot be assigned to PIC.
C. The result in C is 12345 with 5 leading zeroes.
D. The result in C is 1234512 with 3 leading zeroes.
Answer: C
Q: 52 Given the following piece of code, which loop construct using WHILE or
UNTIL will give identical output?
DCL I FIXED BIN (31);
DO I = 10 TO 1 BY -1;
PUT (I);
END;
A. I = 10;
DO WHILE (I > 1);
PUT (I);
I = I - 1;
END;
B. I = 10;
DO WHILE (I >= 1);
I = I - 1;
PUT (I);
END;
C. I = 10;
DO UNTIL (I < 1);
PUT (I);
I = I - 1;
END;
D. I = 10;
DO UNTIL (I > 1);
PUT (I);
I = I - 1;
END;
Answer: C
Q: 53 What code will print the value of A to SYSPRINT?
DCL A DEC FIXED(5,3) INIT(12.0);
A. PUT SKIP LIST('Value of A is:' !! A);
B. PUT SKIP LIST('Value of A is:'), (A);
C. PUT SKIP LIST('Value of A is:')(A);
D. PUT SKIP LIST A;
Answer: A
Q: 54 A programmer has been asked to write a program that tests a variable, X,
and writes out A, B, C or D if X is 0, 1, 2 or 3 respectively and writes out E when X has none of those
values. Which of the following programs represents the best practice using IF or SELECT statements?
A. SUB1: PROC( X );
DCL X FIXED UNSIGNED;
IF X = 0 THEN
PUT SKIP LIST ( 'A');
ELSE
IF X = 1 THEN
PUT SKIP LIST ( 'B');
ELSE
IF X = 2 THEN
PUT SKIP LIST ( 'C');
ELSE
IF X = 3 THEN
PUT SKIP LIST ( 'D');
ELSE
PUT SKIP LIST ( 'E');
END;
B. SUB2: PROC ( X );
DCL X FIXED UNSIGNED;
IF X < 2 THEN
IF X = 0 THEN
PUT SKIP LIST ( 'A');
ELSE
PUT SKIP LIST ( 'B');
ELSE
IF X = 2 THEN
PUT SKIP LIST ( 'C');
ELSE
IF X = 3 THEN
PUT SKIP LIST ( 'D');
ELSE
PUT SKIP LIST ( 'E');
END;
C. SUB3: PROC( X );
DCL X FIXED UNSIGNED;
SELECT;
WHEN ( X = 0 )
PUT SKIP LIST ( 'A');
WHEN( X = 1 )
PUT SKIP LIST ( 'B');
WHEN( X = 2 )
PUT SKIP LIST ( 'C');
WHEN( X = 3 )
PUT SKIP LIST ( 'D');
OTHERWISE
PUT SKIP LIST ( 'E');
END;
END;
D. SUB4: PROC( X );
DCL X FIXED UNSIGNED;
SELECT ( X );
WHEN ( 0 )
PUT SKIP LIST ( 'A');
WHEN ( 1 )
PUT SKIP LIST ( 'B');
WHEN ( 2 )
PUT SKIP LIST ( 'C');
WHEN ( 3 )
PUT SKIP LIST ( 'D');
OTHERWISE
PUT SKIP LIST ( 'E');
END;
END;
Answer: D
Q: 55 Given the following piece of code, what will happen when the code is
executed if STRINGSIZE is not enabled?
DCL X CHAR (5) INIT ('ABCDE');
DCL Y CHAR (3) INIT ('');
Y = X;
A. Y receives the value 'ABC' and the next two bytes following Y's storage are overridden by 'DE'.
B. Y receives the value 'ABC' and 'DE' is not assigned to any storage area.
C. The assignment is not executed and program execution continues after the assignment.
D. The assignment is not executed and program execution abends.
Answer: B
Q: 56 Given the following code, how many elements of A will contain a value of 0
after execution of the loops?
DCL A DIM (8, 10) FIXED BIN (31);
DCL (I, K) FIXED BIN (31) INIT (0);
A = 0;
DO I = 2 TO 8;
DO K = 1 TO 10;
A(I, K) = I*K;
END;
END;
A. 0
B. 1
C. 8
D. 10
Answer: D
Q: 57 What happens after executing the following code?
DCL A BIN FIXED(15);
A = 1_000;
A. The value of A is 1000.
B. The value of A is 8.
C. The value of A is 1.
D. There is a syntax error.
Answer: A
Q: 58 Given the following code in a program, which code will NOT change the
program's behavior when the ENDFILE(SYSIN) condition is raised?
ON ENDFILE (SYSIN) GOTO START;
A. ON ENDFILE (SYSIN);
B. ON ENDFILE (SYSIN) EOF = '1'B;
C. REVERT ENDFILE (SYSIN);
D. SIGNAL ENDFILE (SYSIN);
Answer: D
Q: 59 If the physical dataset referred to by DDIN has a record length of 200 and a
RECFM of F, what happens after executing the following code?
DCL DDIN FILE RECORD INPUT;
DCL P PTR;
DCL 1 INSTR BASED(P),
2 A CHAR(100),
2 B CHAR(100);
ALLOCATE INSTR;
OPEN FILE(DDIN);
READ FILE(DDIN) INTO(INSTR);
A. One record will be read into the buffer and the pointer will be set accordingly.
B. One record will be read into the structure INSTR.
C. READ INTO cannot be used on a BASED structure.
D. Program will abend because P has not been properly initialized.
Answer: B
Q: 60 Which of the following loops will run infinitely?
A. DCL I FIXED BIN (31);
DO I = 1 BY 2 UNTIL (I = 20);
PUT (I);
END;
B. DCL I FIXED BIN (31);
DO I = 1 BY 2 UNTIL (I > 20);
PUT (I);
END;
C. DCL I FIXED BIN (31);
DO I = 1 BY 2 WHILE (I < 20);
PUT (I);
END;
D. DCL I FIXED BIN (31);
DO I = 1 BY 2 WHILE (I = 20);
PUT (I);
END;
Answer: A
Q: 61 What value is output by the following program?
TEST: PACKAGE;
DCL N EXT FIXED BIN(31) INIT(10);
DCL C(N) EXT CONTROLLED FIXED BIN(31);
MAIN: PROC OPTIONS(MAIN);
ALLOC C;
ALLOC C(20);
N = 30;
CALL UPGM;
END;
UPGM: PROC;
ALLOC C;
N = 40;
PUT SKIP LIST( DIM(C) );
END;
END;
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
Answer: C
Q: 62 Given the following program, the compiler will produce the warning
message "The structure member A2 is declared without any data attributes. A level number may be
incorrect.".
What is the best way to correct the program?
TEST: PROC OPTIONS(MAIN);
DCL
1 A,
3 A1 FIXED BIN(31),
3 A2,
3 A3 FIXED BIN(31),
3 A4 FIXED BIN(31);
END;
A. Add the attribute CHAR(8) to the declare for A2
B. Change the level number on the declare for A2 to 2
C. Change the level number on the declare for A3 to 4
D. Change the level numbers on the declares for A3 and A4 to 4
Answer: D
Q: 63 Given the following code, what construct is equivalent?
SELECT;
WHEN (A < 1) B += 1;
WHEN (A < 2) B += 2;
WHEN (A < 3) B += 3;
OTHERWISE B = 0;
END;
A. IF A < 1 THEN
B += 1;
ELSE
IF A < 2 THEN
B += 2;
ELSE
IF A < 3 THEN
B += 3;
ELSE
B = 0;
B. IF A < 1 THEN B += 1;
IF A < 2 THEN B += 2;
IF A < 3 THEN B += 3;
ELSE B = 0;
C. SELECT;
WHEN (A < 3) B += 3;
WHEN (A < 2) B += 2;
WHEN (A < 1) B += 1;
OTHERWISE B = 0;
END;
D. SELECT;
WHEN (A < 1) B += 1;
WHEN (A < 2) B += 2;
WHEN (A < 3) B += 3;
END;
Answer: A
Q: 64 What happens to the STATIC variables in the program U, if anything,
after executing the following code?
FETCH U;
CALL U;
RELEASE U;
FETCH U;
A. STATIC variables cannot be used in program U.
B. STATIC variables will have the values from the last time U was called.
C. STATIC variables will have their INITIAL values.
D. Nothing because there is a syntax error.
Answer: C
Q: 65 Which of the following pieces of code will result in a compiler error
message?
A. ON ENDFILE (SYSIN)
DO;
PUT LIST('End of file reached.');
EOF = '1'B;
END;
B. ON ENDFILE (SYSIN)
BEGIN;
PUT LIST('End of file reached.');
EOF = '1'B;
END;
C. IF EOF THEN
DO;
K = 0;
L = 1;
END;
D. IF EOF THEN
BEGIN;
K = 0;
L = 1;
END;
Answer: A
Q: 66 What happens after end of file has been reached in the following code,
assuming the input file has more than 100 records?
DCL INF FILE RECORD INPUT;
DCL INFIELD CHAR(100) BASED(P);
DCL P PTR;
DCL EOF BIT(1) INIT('0'B);
ON ENDFILE(INF) BEGIN;
ALLOC INFIELD;
INFIELD = 'EOF REACHED';
END;
OPEN FILE(INF);
READ FILE(INF) SET(P);
DO WHILE(^EOF);
READ FILE(INF) SET(P);
EOF = '1'B;
END;
A. End of file will never be reached
B. INFIELD will have a value 'EOF REACHED' and the program ends
C. Infinite loop
D. Runtime error because there is no CLOSE statement
Answer: A
Q: 67 Given the following DECLARE statement, how many bytes will be
allocated to A?
DCL
1 A UNION,
2 C8 CHAR(8),
2 XB FIXED BIN(31),
2 BX BIT(16);
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 14
Answer: C
Q: 68 To validate the assignment in the following code, which condition should be
enabled?
TEST: PROC(A, B);
DCL (A, B) CHAR (*);
A = B;
END;
A. SIZE
B. STRINGRANGE
C. STRINGSIZE
D. SUBSCRIPTRANGE
Answer: C
Q: 69 What is the result of executing the following code?
DCL A CHARACTER (4) INIT('10.5');
DCL B DEC FIXED(7,1) INIT(10.5);
B = A + B;
A. CONVERSION is raised.
B. ERROR is raised.
C. No condition is raised and the value of B is 21.
D. No condition is raised and the value of B is 20.5
Answer: D
Q: 70 Under default condition enablement, what is the result of executing the
following code?
DCL X CHAR(5) INIT('A1234');
DCL Y PIC '9999' INIT(0);
Y = X;
A. The value of Y is A123.
B. The value of Y is 1234.
C. CONVERSION would be raised.
D. STRINGSIZE would be raised.
Answer: C
Q: 71 Given the following code, the compiler will issue the message
"RULES(NOLAXIF) requires BIT(1) expressions in IF, WHILE, etc." under the option
RULES(NOLAXIF).
In order to fix this problem, the IF statement should be changed to:
A: PROC( RC );
DCL RC FIXED BIN(31);
IF RC = 0 ! 4 THEN
A. IF RC = (0 ! 4) THEN
B. IF RC = 0 ! RC = 4 THEN
C. IF BIT(RC = 0 ! 4 ) THEN
D. IF BOOL(RC = 0,4,'0111'B) THEN
Answer: B
Q: 72 What is the most appropriate declaration for the variable X?
X = 1.123E+4;
A. DCL X CHAR(4);
B. DCL X PIC '9999';
C. DCL X DEC FLOAT(16);
D. DCL X DEC FIXED(15,3);
Answer: C
Q: 73 If the physical dataset referred to by DDIN has a record length of 200 and a
RECFM of F, what happens after executing the following code?
DCL DDIN FILE RECORD INPUT;
DCL 1 INSTR,
2 A CHAR(150),
2 B CHAR(150);
OPEN FILE(DDIN);
READ FILE(DDIN) INTO(INSTR);
A. When executed, one record will be read into buffer.
B. At runtime, an error will occur because of mismatch of record length.
C. At compile time, an error will occur because of mismatch of record length.
D. When executed, nothing will be read into the buffer.
Answer: B

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IBM 000-041 Free Braindumps - Part 2

2009-07-11T09:14:00.000-07:00

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Cheat-test.com 000-041 Exam Questions:

Q: 27 In which of the following situations can a subroutine be replaced by a
function without any major changes to the code?
A. When the subroutine changes an array parameter
B. When the subroutine changes a structure parameter
C. When the subroutine changes more than one parameter
D. When the subroutine changes only one scalar parameter
Answer: D
Q: 28 Which of the following is NOT a valid way to set a pointer P to zero?
A. UNSPEC(P) = ''B;
B. P = PTRVALUE(0);
C. P = SYSNULL();
D. P = 0;
Answer: D
Q: 29 If the physical dataset referred to by DDOUT has a record length of 200
and RECFM=F, what happens after executing the following code?
DCL DDOUT FILE RECORD OUTPUT;
DCL OUT_CHAR CHAR(200) INIT('Hello World');
WRITE FILE(DDOUT) FROM(OUT_CHAR);
A. One record with a length of 11 will be written to the output file.
B. One record with a length of 200 will be written to the output file.
C. Compiler error because there is no OPEN statement.
D. Runtime error because there is no OPEN statement.
Answer: B
Q: 30 Given the following program, what is shown by the dump?
A: PROC;
DCL X FIXED BIN(31) INIT(17);
DCL F FILE RECORD OUTPUT;
ON ERROR
BEGIN;
CALL PLIDUMP('TFB');
END;
CALL B;
B: PROC;
DCL Y FIXED BIN(31) INIT(29);
X = Y;
OPEN FILE(F);
SIGNAL ERROR;
END;
END;
A. F is open and the storage for Y is still on the stack
B. F is closed and the storage for Y is still on the stack
C. F is open and the storage for Y is no longer on the stack
D. F is closed and the storage for Y is no longer on the stack
Answer: A
Q: 31 What is the result, if any, of executing the following code?
DCL A CHAR(2) INIT(' ');
DCL B BIT(2) INIT('11'B);
A = ^B;
A. The value of A is '00'.
B. The value of A is '11'.
C. The value of A is unpredictable.
D. There is no result, because the syntax is wrong.
Answer: A
Q: 32 What would be printed to SYSPRINT after executing the following code?
DCL A DEC FIXED(15,3) INIT(1000.123);
DCL B PIC 'ZZZZ9V.999' INIT(0);
B = A + 2000.123;
UT SKIP LIST('THE VALUE OF B IS :' !! B);
A. THE VALUE OF B IS : 3000.246
B. THE VALUE OF B IS :03000.246
C. THE VALUE OF B IS :3000.246
D. THE VALUE OF B IS :3000246
Answer: A
Q: 33 Given the following program, which subroutine improperly uses pointers to
address memory and could lead to data corruption or an exception?
A: PROC OPTIONS(MAIN);
DCL
1 X,
2 X1 CHAR(76),
2 X2 PIC'9999';
DCL Y CHAR(20);
CALL SUB1( ADDR(X) );
CALL SUB2( ADDR(X) );
CALL SUB3( ADDR(X) );
CALL SUB4( ADDR(X) );
SUB1: PROC( P );
DCL P POINTER;
DCL
1 X BASED(P),
2 X1 CHAR(76),
2 X2 PIC'9999';
X = '';
END;
SUB2: PROC( P );
DCL P POINTER;
DCL
1 X BASED(P),
2 X1 PIC'(76)X',
2 X2 PIC'9999';
X = '';
END;
SUB3: PROC( P );
DCL P POINTER;
DCL X CHAR(80) BASED(P);
X = '';
END;
SUB4: PROC( P );
DCL P POINTER;
DCL X CHAR(100) BASED(P);
X = '';
END;
END;
A. SUB1
B. SUB2
C. SUB3
D. SUB4
Answer: D
Q: 34 Given the following code, what declaration of I will cause an infinite loop
under default condition enablement?
DO I = 1 TO 99;
A. DCL I FIXED BIN (7);
B. DCL I FIXED DEC (3,0);
C. DCL I PIC'99';
D. DCL I FLOAT;
Answer: C
Q: 35 Given the following piece of code, what will be the output of the
preprocessor?
%F: PROC(S) RETURNS(CHAR);
DCL S CHAR;
RETURN (SUBSTR(S, 1, 1));
%END;
PUT (F(ABC));
%ACTIVATE F;
PUT (F(ABC));
A. PUT (F(ABC));
PUT (A);
B. PUT (A);
PUT (F(ABC));
C. PUT (A);
PUT (A);
D. PUT (F(ABC));
PUT (F(ABC));
Answer: A
Q: 36 Given the following piece of code, what will be output?
A: PROCEDURE OPTIONS (MAIN);
DCL K CHAR (1) INIT ('A');
CALL B;
B: PROCEDURE;
DCL K CHAR (1) INIT ('B');
CALL C;
C: PROCEDURE ;
DCL K CHAR (1) INIT ('C');
PUT (K);
CALL D;
END C;
D: PROCEDURE;
PUT (K);
END D;
END B;
PUT (K);
END A;
A. C A A
B. C C A
C. C B A
D. C A B
Answer: C
Q: 37 Which of the following techniques will NOT cause a referenced external
subprocedure to be handled as FETCHABLE when the referencing program is compiled?
A. OPTIONS(FETCHABLE) as an attribute of the ENTRY declare statement in the referencing program
B. OPTIONS(FETCHABLE) as an option of the PROC statement in the subprocedure
C. Having a FETCH statement for the subprocedure
D. Having a RELEASE statement for the subprocedure
Answer: B
Q: 38 What is the value of B, if any, after executing the following code?
DCL A CHAR(5) INIT('ABCDE');
DCL B CHAR(5) DEF A;
A. NULL
B. Blank
C. 'ABCDE'
D. It cannot be defined.
Answer: C
Q: 39 What is the value of B after executing the following code?
DCL A CHAR(10) INIT('12A4BABCAB');
DCL B BIN FIXED(31) INIT(0);
B = INDEX(A,'AB');
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9
Answer: C
Q: 40 What code would result in the BIT string B having all ones?
DCL A CHAR(8) INIT(HIGH(8));
DCL (HIGH,ADDR) BUILTIN;
A. DCL B BIT(64) BASED(ADDR(A));
B. DCL B BIT(64) INIT('1111111'x);
C. DCL B BIT(64) INIT('1'B);
D. DCL B BIT(64) INIT(HIGH(1));
Answer: A
Q: 41 Given the following code, what procedure will be accepted by the compiler?
DCL A DIM (10) CHAR (100) VAR BASED (P);
DCL P PTR;
ALLOCATE A;
CALL SUB (P);
A. SUB: PROCEDURE (P);
DCL P PTR;
DCL A DIM (10) CHAR (100) VAR BASED (P);
END SUB;
B. SUB: PROCEDURE (P);
DCL P PTR;
DCL A DIM (*) CHAR (100) VAR BASED (P);
END SUB;
C. SUB: PROCEDURE (P);
DCL P PTR;
DCL A DIM (10) CHAR (*) VAR BASED (P);
END SUB;
D. SUB: PROCEDURE (P);
DCL P PTR;
DCL A DIM (*) CHAR (*) VAR BASED (P);
END SUB;
Answer: A
Q: 42 What will be the values of the variables A, B, C and D after executing the
following code?
DCL 1 XYZ,
2 A CHAR(4),
2 B BIN FIXED(31),
2 C DEC FIXED(7),
2 D PIC '999';
XYZ = '';
A. A is blank, B is zero, C is zero, D is zero
B. syntax error in XYZ = '';
C. CONVERSION will be raised in XYZ = '';
D. A,B,C and D are zeros.
Answer: A
Q: 43 Given the following piece of code, how many times is the loop executed?
DCL I FIXED BIN (31);
I = 20;
DO UNTIL (I = 0);
PUT (I);
I = I - 3;
END;
A. less than 6 times
B. 6
C. 7
D. more than 7 times
Answer: D
Q: 44 If the physical dataset referred to by DDOUT has a maximum record
length of 196 and a RECFM=V, what happens after executing the following code?
DCL DDOUT FILE RECORD OUTPUT;
DCL OUT_CHAR CHAR(500) VARYING INIT((220) ' ');
OPEN FILE(DDOUT);
WRITE FILE(DDOUT) FROM(OUT_CHAR);
A. One record with a length of 220 will be written to the output file.
B. One record with a length of 500 will be written to the output file.
C. One record with a length of 196 will be written to the output file.
D. An error will occur because of mismatch of record length.
Answer: D
Q: 45 What code must be added after EOF = '1'B, if any, to print 'EOF
REACHED'?
DCL INF FILE RECORD INPUT;
DCL INFIELD CHAR(100) BASED(P);
DCL P PTR;
DCL EOF BIT(1) INIT('0'B);
ON ENDFILE(INF) BEGIN;
EOF = '1'B;
PUT SKIP LIST(INFIELD);
END;
OPEN FILE(INF);
READ FILE(INF) SET(P);
DO WHILE(^EOF);
READ FILE(INF) SET(P);
END;
A. ALLOC INFIELD; INFIELD = 'EOF REACHED';
B. INFIELD = 'EOF REACHED';
C. It cannot be printed, as it is not sure if INFIELD contains the last record
D. There is a syntax error.
Answer: A
Q: 46 What is the result of executing the following code?
DCL A BIN FIXED(31) INIT(10000);
DCL B BIN FIXED(15) INIT(8000);
B = B / A ;
A. The value of B is 0.8.
B. The value of B is 0.
C. The value of B is 1.
D. CONVERSION would be raised.
Answer: B
Q: 47 Given the following code, what value will be output?
TEST: PROC OPTIONS(MAIN);
DCL
P POINTER,
N1 FIXED BIN(31),
1 A BASED(P),
2 A1 FIXED BIN(31),
2 A2 FIXED BIN(31),
2 A3 FIXED BIN(31),
2 A4( N1 REFER(A3) ) CHAR(10) VAR;
N1 = 5;
ALLOC A;
PUT SKIP LIST( STG(A) );
END;
A. 22
B. 24
C. 62
D. 72
Answer: D
Q: 48 Which of the following is a restriction using the BYVALUE attribute?
A. It can be specified only for scalar arguments and parameters that can be passed in registers.
B. It can be specified only for scalar arguments and parameters with a size of four bytes.
C. It can be specified only for aggregate arguments and parameters.
D. It can be specified only for scalar arguments and parameters whose lengths and sizes are known at compile
time.
Answer: D
Q: 49 In which of the following cases is it possible to change the value of a
variable in a routine when it is passed to the routine as an argument?
A. The argument is declared as FIXED BIN(15), and the corresponding parameter is declared as FIXED
BIN(15) BYVALUE.
B. The argument is declared as FIXED BIN(15), and the corresponding parameter is declared as FIXED
DEC(7) BYADDR.
C. The argument is declared as FIXED DEC(7), and the corresponding parameter is declared as FIXED
DEC(7) BYADDR.
D. The argument is declared as CHAR(10) VAR, and the corresponding parameter is declared as CHAR(10).
Answer: C
Q: 50 What code needs to be executed, if any, before the variable A can be
successfully accessed?
DCL X PTR;
DCL B CHAR(100) INIT(' ');
DCL A CHAR(100) BASED(X);
A. A can be accessed without any further action.
B. X = ADDR(B);
C. A = B;
D. X = NULL();
Answer: B

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IBM 000-041 Free Braindumps - Part 1

2009-07-11T09:09:00.000-07:00

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Cheat-test.com 000-041 Exam Questions:

Q: 1 What is the result, if any, of executing the following code?
DCL A BIT(1) INIT('0'B);
DCL B BIT(1) INIT('0'B);
DCL C BIT(1) INIT('1'B);
A = B ! C;
A. The value of A is '0'B
B. The value of A is '1'B.
C. The value of A is unpredictable.
D. There is no result, because the syntax is wrong.
Answer: B

Q: 2 What does BX.WOK.LOAD refer to in the following job control statement?
//ACCOUNT DD DSN=BX.WOK.LOAD,DISP=SHR
A. It is the connection between program and dataset.
B. It is the physical dataset name.
C. It is the logical dataset name.
D. It is the name which must be referred to in the program.
Answer: B
Q: 3 What will be printed when the following subroutine is called for the third
time?
A : PROC;
DCL X PIC '9' INIT(0);
X = X + 1;
PUT SKIP LIST ('THE VALUE OF X IS :'!!X);
X = X + 1;
END A;
A. THE VALUE OF X IS :1
B. THE VALUE OF X IS :2
C. THE VALUE OF X IS :3
D. THE VALUE OF X IS :5
Answer: A
Q: 4 Given the following code, with what attribute should the variable EOF be
declared?
DO WHILE(^EOF);
A. FIXED BIN (7)
B. BIT (1)
C. CHAR (1)
D. FIXED DEC (3)
Answer: B
Q: 5 Which is the most appropriate code to turn all of the bits in A ON?
DCL A BIT(8);
A. A = 255;
B. A = '11111111'B;
C. A = 11111111B;
D. A = -1;
Answer: B
Q: 6 What changes should be made, if any, to the following code?
DCL A CHAR(100) BASED(P);
DCL P PTR;
READ FILE(DDIN) INTO(A);
A. READ FILE(DDIN) SET(A);
B. READ FILE(DDIN) INTO(P);
C. READ FILE(DDIN) SET(P);
D. No changes necessary because the code is correct.
Answer: C
Q: 7 What is the value of B after executing the following code?
DCL A CHAR(10) VAR;
DCL B BIN FIXED(31) INIT(0);
DCL C CHAR(5) INIT('ABCD');
A = C;
B = LENGTH(A);
A. 10
B. 7
C. 5
D. 4
Answer: C
Q: 8 Which of the following is a BIN FIXED constant?
A. '1000'
B. 1E+03
C. 1000
D. 1000B
Answer: D
Q: 9 Which of the following is NOT a valid method to activate a BEGIN block?
A. A condition is signaled and the BEGIN block is a component of the corresponding ON unit.
B. Sequential program flow approaches the BEGIN block.
C. The BEGIN block is labeled and a GOTO addresses this label.
D. The BEGIN block is labeled and a CALL addresses this label.
Answer: D
Q: 10 Which is the most appropriate data type declaration for the variable A in
the following expression, if A is used as a counter?
A = A + 1;
A. CHAR
B. BIN FIXED
C. FLOAT
D. PIC
Answer: B
Q: 11 Given the following code, what SELECT code is NOT equivalent?
DCL (C, W, V) CHAR (1);
...
SELECT (C);
WHEN ('A', 'B') PUT ('1');
WHEN ('C') PUT ('2');
WHEN (W) PUT ('3');
WHEN (V) PUT ('4');
OTHER PUT ('0ther');
END;
A. SELECT (C);
WHEN ('C') PUT ('2');
WHEN ('A', 'B') PUT ('1');
WHEN (W) PUT ('3');
WHEN (V) PUT ('4');
OTHER PUT ('0ther');
END;
B. SELECT (C);
WHEN ('A', 'B') PUT ('1');
WHEN ('C') PUT ('2');
WHEN (V) PUT ('4');
WHEN (W) PUT ('3');
OTHER PUT ('0ther');
END;
C. SELECT (C);
WHEN ('B', 'A') PUT ('1');
WHEN ('C') PUT ('2');
WHEN (W) PUT ('3');
WHEN (V) PUT ('4');
OTHER PUT ('0ther');
END;
D. SELECT (C);
WHEN ('A') PUT ('1');
WHEN ('B') PUT ('1');
WHEN ('C') PUT ('2');
WHEN (W) PUT ('3');
WHEN (V) PUT ('4');
OTHER PUT ('0ther');
END;
Answer: B
Q: 12 Which of the following describes when a program is NOT FETCHABLE?
A. When the main program need not be recompiled to reflect the changes made in the called program
B. When the called program will be loaded from the library at execution time
C. When the called program is part of the main program in the load module
D. When two main programs referring to the called program at the same time cannot have different versions of
the called program
Answer: C
Q: 13 Which is the impact, if any, of LIKE in the following code?
DCL
1 XY,
2 A CHAR(4),
2 B BIN FIXED(31);
DCL 1 YZ LIKE XY;
A. XY.A is always the same as YZ.A.
B. YZ is exactly the same structure as XY but with its own storage.
C. YZ is based on the structure XY.
D. There is no impact, because LIKE is a syntax error.
Answer: B
Q: 14 What is the most appropriate data type for a variable that is being used to
represent numeric data in a printable form and at the same time can be used to perform arithmetic?
A. BIN FIXED
B. DEC FIXED
C. CHAR
D. PICTURE
Answer: D
Q: 15 What is the most appropriate declaration for the variable A?
A = 'ABCDEF';
A. DCL A BIN FIXED(15);
B. DCL A CHAR(6);
C. DCL A DEC FIXED (15,3);
D. DCL A PIC '999999';
Answer: B
Q: 16 Which of the following would NOT access the third element of A?
DCL 1 XY(5),
2 A(4) CHAR(4);
A. XY(1,3).A
B. XY.A(1,3)
C. XY(1).A(3)
D. XY(3).A(1)
Answer: D
Q: 17 Given the following code, what can be said about the scope of the variables
in procedure P?
P: PROCEDURE;
B: BEGIN;
DCL K FIXED BIN (15);
END B;
D: DO;
DCL S CHAR (10);
END D;
END P;
A. Variable S is known in the entire procedure.
B. Variable K is known in the entire procedure.
C. Variable S is not known in block B.
D. Variable K is known in group D.
Answer: A
Q: 18 What will be output by the following program?
TEST: PROC OPTIONS(MAIN);
DCL A CONTROLLED FIXED BIN(31);
ALLOC A;
ALLOC A;
CALL SUB(A);
PUT SKIP LIST( ALLOCN(A) );
SUB: PROC( B );
DCL B CONTROLLED FIXED BIN(31);
FREE B;
ALLOC B;
ALLOC B;
FREE B;
ALLOC B;
END;
END;
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B
Q: 19 What is the value of A after executing the following code?
DCL A CHAR(6) INIT ('ABCDEF');
DCL B CHAR(10) INIT ('0123456789');
A = SUBSTR(B,5,3);
A. '456 '
B. ' 456'
C. '456DEF'
D. 'ABC456'
Answer: A
Q: 20 What does the following code do, if anything?
RELEASE U;
A. Release the memory used by the program U
B. Reloads the program U into the memory
C. Closes the file U
D. Nothing because there is a syntax error.
Answer: A
Q: 21 Which of the following is a BIT string constant?
A. 1000
B. '1000'
C. '1000'B
D. 1000B
Answer: C
Q: 22 What is the most appropriate way to assign a value to variable A?
DCL A BIN FIXED(15);
A. A = '17';
B. A = 17.29;
C. A = '1729'X;
D. A = 17;
Answer: D
Q: 23 Given the following declaration, the compiler will issue the message "The
variable RX is declared without any data attributes."
What possible problem is this message reporting?
DCL RX, RY FIXED BIN;
A. That the code is in error because a variable declared without attributes is not allocated storage
B. That the code is in error because only one variable may be declared in any one statement
C. That the code is in error because the FIXED BIN attribute would not apply to both RX and RY
D. That the code is in error because the FIXED BIN precision was not specified
Answer: C
Q: 24 Given the following code, what will be output?
MP: PROC OPTIONS(MAIN);
DCL A CHAR(1) INIT('A');
DCL B CHAR(1) INIT('B');
DCL C CHAR(1) STATIC INIT('C');
CALL SR1(A);
PUT SKIP LIST(A!!B!!C);
SR1: PROC(A);
DCL A CHAR(1);
DCL B CHAR(1);
DCL C CHAR(1);
A = '1';
B = '2';
C = '3';
END SR1;
END;
A. 1B3
B. 1BC
C. 123
D. 12C
Answer: B
Q: 25 What should be done, if anything, when the following compiler message
appears? Multiple closure of blocks, one extra END statement assumed.
A. Take out the extra END statement.
B. Find the missing END statement and add it at the right place.
C. PUT an extra END statement at the end of the program.
D. Nothing needs to be done.
Answer: B

To be continued...